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Past papers/ Taxation/ November 2019
Paper 15 Qs
Suggested Answers · November 2019

CA Inter Taxation

This page contains all 15 questions from the CA Inter Taxation Suggested Answers for the November 2019 attempt cycle, sourced from VSI Jaipur.

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Q.b 08 marks hard Cash Flow Statement - AS-3 ⚡ Try this Q →
M/s X Limited has furnished the following information relating to the financial year ended 31st March, 2019: Net Profit ₹2,50,000; Dividend 1,00,000; Provision for income tax 80,000; Income tax paid 65,000; Loss on sale of Plant & Machinery 1,000; Book value of plant & machinery (sold) 4,500; Depreciation debited to profit & loss account 12,000; Purchases of furniture & fixtures 1,11,000; Investment in joint venture 40,000; Proceeds from issue of 12% debentures 20,000; Increase in working capital (Excluding cash and bank balance) 18,000; Closing cash and cash equivalent 50,000. Prepare the cash flow statement in accordance with AS-3 for the year ended 31st March, 2019.
CTTP

Worked Solution

✓ Verified

Cash Flow Statement of M/s X Limited for the year ended 31st March, 2019
(As per AS-3 — Indirect Method)

A. Cash Flow from Operating Activities

Net Profit for the year: ₹2,50,000
Add: Provision for Income Tax: ₹80,000
Net Profit before Tax: ₹3,30,000

Adjustments for non-cash and non-operating items:
Add: Depreciation charged to P&L: ₹12,000
Add: Loss on sale of Plant & Machinery: ₹1,000
Less: Increase in Working Capital (excl. cash): (₹18,000)

Operating Profit before Working Capital Changes: ₹3,25,000

Less: Income Tax Paid: (₹65,000)

Net Cash from Operating Activities (A): ₹2,60,000

B. Cash Flow from Investing Activities

Proceeds from sale of Plant & Machinery (BV ₹4,500 − Loss ₹1,000): ₹3,500
Less: Purchase of Furniture & Fixtures: (₹1,11,000)
Less: Investment in Joint Venture: (₹40,000)

Net Cash used in Investing Activities (B): (₹1,47,500)

C. Cash Flow from Financing Activities

Proceeds from issue of 12% Debentures: ₹20,000
Less: Dividend Paid: (₹1,00,000)

Net Cash used in Financing Activities (C): (₹80,000)

Net Increase in Cash and Cash Equivalents (A+B+C): ₹32,500

Add: Opening Cash and Cash Equivalents (balancing figure): ₹17,500

Closing Cash and Cash Equivalents: ₹50,000

Notes: Under AS-3 (Accounting Standard 3 — Cash Flow Statements), dividend paid is classified as a Financing Activity. Income tax paid is deducted under Operating Activities. Loss on sale of P&M is added back as a non-cash/non-operating adjustment; actual sale proceeds (Net Book Value − Loss = ₹3,500) are shown under Investing Activities. Provision for tax is added back to arrive at profit before tax, and actual tax paid (₹65,000) is separately deducted.

PLAN

Write it like this

Time target 14 min 24 sec

1The skeleton

- Write the heading exactly as: 'Cash Flow Statement of [Entity] for the year ended [date] (As per AS-3 — Indirect Method)' — examiners look for 'AS-3' and 'Indirect Method' in the title itself; missing either costs you presentation marks before you've written a single number.
- Start Operating Activities with Net Profit, immediately add Provision for Tax to arrive at 'Net Profit before Tax' — this is the mandatory first step under Indirect Method; jumping straight to adjustments without this line signals you don't understand the structure.
- Label your adjustments block as 'Adjustments for non-cash and non-operating items' — then list depreciation (+) and loss on sale (+) under it; the examiner needs to see you know WHY you're adding these back, not just that you are.
- Under Investing Activities, show the sale proceeds calculation explicitly as BV ₹4,500 − Loss ₹1,000 = ₹3,500 — don't just write ₹3,500 out of nowhere; showing the working in brackets proves you derived proceeds correctly and protects your step marks.
- Put Dividend Paid under Financing Activities, not Operating — and write a one-line note at the bottom: 'Dividend paid is classified as Financing Activity as per AS-3'; this note alone can rescue 1 mark if your figure is right but placement looks debatable.
- End with the reconciliation: Net Change + Opening Cash = Closing Cash ₹50,000 ✓ — the tick mark and the match signal to the examiner the statement is complete and self-checking; derive opening cash as the balancing figure and state it clearly.

2Examiner-rewarded phrases

“Adjustments for non-cash and non-operating items”“Net cash generated from / used in operating / investing / financing activities”“Dividend paid is treated as financing activity as per AS-3”

3Common trap

Don't fall for this

The single biggest killer here is putting Dividend Paid under Operating Activities — nearly every student does it instinctively because dividend flows out of P&L. It's Financing under AS-3, full stop. Second trap: showing Book Value ₹4,500 as sale proceeds instead of computing actual proceeds (BV − Loss = ₹3,500); you'll lose marks on Investing Activities even if your Operating total is perfect.

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Q.c 00 marks easy Working Capital Management ⚡ Try this Q →
Following information relate to a firm: Current ratio: 1.5:1 Inventory Turnover Ratio (Based on COGS): 8 Sales: ₹ 40,000,000 Working capital: ₹ 2,83,000 Gross Profit Ratio: 20% You are required to find out: (i) The value of opening stock presuming that the closing stock is ₹ 40,000 more than the opening stock. (ii) The value of Bank overdraft, presuming that the Bank overdraft and other current liabilities are in a ratio of 2:1.
CTTP

Worked Solution

✓ Verified

Step 1 – Derive COGS

Gross Profit Ratio = 20%, therefore COGS = 80% of Sales.

Sales = ₹ 40,00,000 (₹ 40 lakhs)
COGS = 80% × ₹ 40,00,000 = ₹ 32,00,000

Part (i) – Value of Opening Stock

Inventory Turnover Ratio (based on COGS) = COGS / Average Stock

8 = ₹ 32,00,000 / Average Stock

Average Stock = ₹ 32,00,000 / 8 = ₹ 4,00,000

Let Opening Stock = OS; then Closing Stock = OS + ₹ 40,000

Average Stock = (OS + CS) / 2
4,00,000 = (OS + OS + 40,000) / 2
8,00,000 = 2·OS + 40,000
2·OS = 7,60,000

Opening Stock = ₹ 3,80,000
(Closing Stock = ₹ 4,20,000)

Part (ii) – Value of Bank Overdraft

From the Current Ratio and Working Capital:

Current Ratio = Current Assets (CA) / Current Liabilities (CL) = 1.5
Working Capital = CA − CL = ₹ 2,83,000

Since CA = 1.5 · CL:
1.5·CL − CL = 2,83,000
0.5·CL = 2,83,000
CL = ₹ 5,66,000

Bank Overdraft : Other Current Liabilities = 2 : 1 (total 3 parts)

Bank Overdraft = (2/3) × ₹ 5,66,000 = ₹ 3,77,333 (approx.)
Other Current Liabilities = (1/3) × ₹ 5,66,000 = ₹ 1,88,667

Summary:
- Opening Stock = ₹ 3,80,000
- Bank Overdraft = ₹ 3,77,333

PLAN

Write it like this

Time target 9 min

1The skeleton

- Write COGS derivation as your first line — '80% × ₹40,00,000 = ₹32,00,000' must appear before any ratio work, because examiners verify your base figure before checking anything else.
- State the ITR formula explicitly — 'ITR (based on COGS) = COGS / Average Stock' in words before substituting; skipping the formula costs presentation marks even if your number is right.
- Set up the OS/CS algebra with a clear 'Let' statement — write 'Let Opening Stock = x, ∴ Closing Stock = x + ₹40,000' on its own line so the examiner can follow your logic without hunting through your calculation.
- Derive CL before touching the overdraft split — show the 0.5·CL = ₹2,83,000 step explicitly; jumping straight to ₹5,66,000 looks like a guess even if the number is correct.
- Present the 2:1 ratio split as a fraction — write 'Bank Overdraft = 2/3 × ₹5,66,000' so the examiner sees you applied the ratio correctly, not just that you got a number.

2Examiner-rewarded phrases

“Inventory Turnover Ratio (based on COGS) = COGS / Average Inventory”“Working Capital = Current Assets − Current Liabilities”“Current Ratio = Current Assets / Current Liabilities = 1.5 : 1”

3Common trap

Don't fall for this

The deadliest trap here is using Sales (₹40,00,000) in the ITR formula instead of COGS — the question explicitly says 'based on COGS', so using Sales gives wrong Average Stock and kills both sub-parts in a chain. Double-check: if GP% is given alongside ITR, it's almost always a signal to convert to COGS first.

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Q.d 00 marks hard Cost of Capital ⚡ Try this Q →
ABC Private Limited wishes to raise additional finance of ₹ 30 lakh for purchasing a machine. It has ₹ 16 lakh in the form of retained earnings which is available for investment purposes. The following details are provided by the company: (1) Debt-equity mix: 1:1 (2) Earnings per share: ₹ 10 (3) Current Market Price per share: ₹ 50 (4) Tax rate: 30% (5) Dividend payout: 50% of earning (6) Expected growth rate in dividend: 10% (7) Cost of debt: upto ₹ 6 lakh: 12% (before tax), beyond ₹ 6 lakh: 15% (before tax)
CTTP

Worked Solution

✓ Verified

(i) Pattern for Raising Additional Finance

The firm maintains a Debt : Equity ratio of 1:1, meaning 50% debt and 50% equity of every rupee raised.

Total additional finance required = ₹30 lakh
- Debt component (50%) = ₹15 lakh
- Equity component (50%) = ₹15 lakh

Retained earnings available = ₹16 lakh ≥ required equity of ₹15 lakh. Hence, no fresh equity (new shares) needs to be issued.

SourceAmount (₹ lakh)
Debt15
Retained Earnings15
New Equity IssueNil
Total30

---

(ii) Post-Tax Average Cost of Additional Debt

Total debt to be raised = ₹15 lakh. Cost structure is tiered:
- First ₹6 lakh @ 12% (before tax) → after-tax cost = 12% × (1 − 0.30) = 8.4%
- Next ₹9 lakh @ 15% (before tax) → after-tax cost = 15% × (1 − 0.30) = 10.5%

Weighted average post-tax cost of debt = [(6 × 8.4) + (9 × 10.5)] / 15 = (50.4 + 94.5) / 15 = 9.66%

---

(iii) Cost of Retained Earnings and Cost of Equity

Using the Gordon Growth Model (Dividend Growth Model):

Dividend per share (D₀) = 50% × ₹10 (EPS) = ₹5
Expected dividend (D₁) = ₹5 × (1 + 0.10) = ₹5.50
Current Market Price (P₀) = ₹50

Cost of Retained Earnings (Kᵣ) = D₁/P₀ + g = 5.50/50 + 0.10 = 0.11 + 0.10 = 21%

Since no flotation cost is given for new equity, Cost of New Equity (Kₑ) = 21% (same formula applies; no fresh issue is required here).

---

(iv) Overall Weighted Average After-Tax Cost of Additional Finance (WACC)

SourceAmount (₹ lakh)WeightCost (%)Weighted Cost (%)
Debt150.509.664.83
Retained Earnings150.5021.0010.50
Total301.0015.33

Overall WACC of additional finance = 15.33%

PLAN

Write it like this

Time target 14 min 24 sec

1The skeleton

- Split the finance first, before any cost calculation — write out the 1:1 ratio, show Debt = ₹15L and Equity = ₹15L explicitly; examiners want to see you understand the structure before the numbers.
- Compare retained earnings to equity need in one line — state '₹16L available ≥ ₹15L required, hence no fresh issue' right there; this single sentence saves you from computing flotation-adjusted Ke and signals you read the data carefully.
- Show tiered debt as two separate slabs with individual after-tax costs — write 6L @ 8.4% and 9L @ 10.5% as distinct lines, then take the weighted average; examiners mark the slab split as a separate step, so collapsing it loses marks even if the final % is right.
- Label D₀, D₁, P₀ before plugging into Gordon's model — write each variable on its own line; this is how ICAI model answers format it and it separates 'concept marks' from 'calculation marks'.
- Close with a WACC table — always — four columns: Source, Amount, Weight, Cost%, Weighted Cost%; the table format tells the examiner you know this is a weighted average, not a simple average, and it's easy to award partial marks.

2Examiner-rewarded phrases

“Post-tax cost of debt = Pre-tax cost × (1 – tax rate)”“Cost of retained earnings (Kr) is computed using Gordon's Growth Model: Kr = D₁/P₀ + g”“Since retained earnings available are sufficient to meet the equity component, no fresh issue of shares is required”

3Common trap

Don't fall for this

The biggest mark-killer here is applying 15% to the entire ₹15L of debt instead of only the slab beyond ₹6L — you'll get a wrong Kd and a wrong WACC even though your structure is perfect. Double-check: ₹6L is the threshold, so ₹9L gets the 15% rate, not ₹15L.

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Q.2a 08 marks very hard Process Costing ⚡ Try this Q →
PQR Ltd. processes a range of products including a toy 'Alpha', which passes through three processes before completion and transfer to the finished goods warehouse. The information relating to the month of October 2019 are as follows: | Particulars | Process-I | Process-II | Process-III | Total | |---|---|---|---|---| | Raw materials (2,000 units) | ₹ 12,000 | - | - | ₹ 12,000 | | Direct raw material added in process | ₹ 17,000 | ₹ 19,000 | ₹ 11,000 | ₹ 47,000 | | Direct wages | ₹ 8,000 | ₹ 12,000 | ₹ 24,000 | ₹ 44,000 | | Direct Expenses | ₹ 2,400 | ₹ 1,860 | ₹ 2,680 | ₹ 6,940 | | Production overhead | - | - | - | ₹ 33,000 | | Output (Units) | 1,840 | 1,740 | 1,580 | - | | Normal loss in process of input (%) | 10 | 5 | 10 | - | | Scrap value per unit | ₹ 2 | ₹ 5 | ₹ 10 | - |
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Q.3 08 marks hard Inventory Valuation - Periodic Inventory System ⚡ Try this Q →
M/s XYZ Traders is a distributor of an electronic calculator. A periodic inventory of electronic calculator on hand is taken when books are closed at the end of each quarter. The following summary of information is available for the quarter ended on 30th September, 2019: Sales: ₹ 14,60,000, Opening Stock: 2500 calculator @ ₹ 2.00 per calculator, Administrative Expenses: ₹ 3,75,000, Purchases (including freight inward): July 1, 2019 - 50000 calculator @ ₹ 1.91 per calculator; September 30, 2019 - 25000 calculator @ ₹ 2.10 per calculator, Closing stock - September 30, 2019: 32000 calculator. You are required to compute the following by WAM (Weighted Average Method), FIFO method and LIFO method: (i) Value of Inventory on 30th September, 2019. (ii) Profit or loss for the quarter ended 30th September, 2019.
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Q.3 08 marks hard Working Capital Management / Credit Policy ⚡ Try this Q →
XYZ Ltd. is making a turnover of ₹ 70 lakhs out of which 60% is made on credit. The company allows credit for 30 days. The company is considering proposals to liberalize the credit policy. Information regarding options available are as under: Credit period: Proposal-A: 45 days, Proposal-B: 60 days Anticipated credit sales: Proposal-A: ₹ 65 lakh, Proposal-B: ₹ 80 lakh The product yield an average contribution of 20% on sales. Fixed costs are ₹ 6 lakhs per annum. The company expects a pre-tax return of 18% on capital employed. At present company makes a provision for bad debts @ 0.5% which is expected to go up to 1% for Proposal-A and to 2% for Proposal-B. Assume 360 days in a year. Evaluate the proposals and give your recommendations.
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Q.5 05 marks medium Cost Accounting - Process Costing ⚡ Try this Q →
The production overhead is absorbed as a percentage of direct wages. There was no opening and closing stock. Prepare the following accounts: (i) Process-I, (ii) Process-II, (iii) Process-III, (iv) Abnormal Loss, (v) Abnormal Gain
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Q.5 08 marks hard Capital Budgeting - Investment Appraisal ⚡ Try this Q →
A firm is willing to purchase a new machine and is having two options. Information related to the options are as follows: Option-I - Cost of Machine: ₹ 30,00,000, Expected Life: 5 years, Salvage value of Machine: ₹ 5,00,000, Expected Earning (After tax): ₹ 7,75,000. Option-II - Cost of Machine: ₹ 35,00,000, Expected Life: 6 years, Salvage value of Machine: ₹ 5,00,000, Expected Earning (After tax): ₹ 8,25,000. The firm charges depreciation on the machine as per straight line method. The cost of capital is 14%. The present value of ₹ 1 @ 14% is as under: Year 1: 0.877, Year 2: 0.769, Year 3: 0.675, Year 4: 0.592, Year 5: 0.519, Year 6: 0.455
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Q.5a 08 marks hard Cost Accounting - Waste and Spoilage ⚡ Try this Q →
Explain the meaning of 'Waste' and 'Spoilage' and give the accounting treatment of each one.
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Q.5b 00 marks easy Budgetary Control System ⚡ Try this Q →
State the objectives of Budgetary Control System.
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Q.5c 00 marks easy Banking and Finance ⚡ Try this Q →
State various types of packing credit.
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Q.5d 00 marks easy Capital Structure - Finance ⚡ Try this Q →
Explain 'Net Income (NI) Approach' and 'Net Operating Income (NOI) Approach' of capital structure.
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Q.6(b) 08 marks very hard Financial Leverage, ROI, EBIT, EBT, Asset Turnover ⚡ Try this Q →
Case: ABC Private Limited Financial Data: Sales ₹80,00,000, Variable Cost ₹46,00,000, Fixed Costs ₹6,50,000, 11% Borrowed Capital ₹50,00,000, Equity Capital ₹45,00,000, Retained earnings ₹15,00,000
Following information have been provided by ABC Private Limited: Sales ₹80,00,000, Variable Cost ₹46,00,000, Fixed Costs ₹6,50,000, 11% Borrowed Capital ₹50,00,000, Equity Capital ₹45,00,000, Retained earnings ₹15,00,000. Required:
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Q.6a 08 marks very hard Standard Costing - Material and Labour Variance ⚡ Try this Q →
A manufacturing firm produces a specific product and adopts standard costing system. The product is produced within a single cost centre. Following information related to the product are available from the standard cost sheet of the product: Direct material 5 kg @ ₹15 per kg = ₹75.00; Direct wages 4 hours @ ₹20 per hour = ₹80.00. During the month of October 2019, the firm purchased 3,50,000 kg of material at the rate of ₹14 per kg. Production records for the month: Material used 3,20,000 kg; Direct wages 2,20,000 hours ₹46,20,000. The production schedule requires completion of 60,000 units in a month. The firm produced 62,000 units in the month of October, 2019. There are no opening and closing work-in-progress.
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Q.7 20 marks very hard Integrated Accounting, Cost Accounting, Flexible Budget, Tim ⚡ Try this Q →
Answer any four of the following:
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