✅ 27 of 27 questions have AI-generated solutions with bare-Act citations.
Q1Companies Act 2013 - Dividend Distribution
5 marks hard
Case: ABC Ltd dividend distribution - verification of compliance with Companies Act 2013 dividend distribution provisions based on financial statements for FY 2024-25
ABC Ltd., a listed company in the Indian manufacturing sector, has concluded its financial year ended 31st March 2025. The company is now declaring a final dividend of ₹ 3 per equity share, with a face value of ₹ 10 per share. Before proceeding, the Board of Directors seeks to ensure that the proposed dividend complies with all relevant provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, particularly those related to the permissible sources and conditions for dividend distribution. The summarized financial position of the company for FY 2024-25 is as follows: Revenue from operations amounts to ₹ 10,000 lakhs; Other income contributes an additional ₹ 1,000 lakhs, bringing the total income to ₹ 11,000 lakhs. The company has incurred expenses (excluding depreciation) of ₹ 6,000 lakhs, and Provided for depreciation of ₹ 1,200 lakhs, as per Schedule II of the Companies Act. The resulting profit before tax (PBT) stands at ₹ 1,800 lakhs, with a tax provision of ₹ 450 lakhs, leading to a net profit after tax (PAT) of ₹ 1,350 lakhs. In addition to current year earnings, ABC Ltd. has accumulated retained earnings of ₹ 2,000 lakhs from previous financial years and holds free reserves (excluding any revaluation reserves) of ₹ 500 lakhs. The company has 100 lakh equity shares and the total proposed dividend payout amounts to ₹ 300 lakhs (₹ 3 per share).
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Verification of Dividend Declaration Compliance — ABC Ltd. (FY 2024-25)
Applicable Law: Section 123 of the Companies Act, 2013 read with Rule 3 of the Companies (Declaration and Payment of Dividend) Rules, 2014 governs the permissible sources and conditions for dividend declaration.
Permissible Sources of Dividend [Section 123(1)]:
A company may declare dividend out of: (i) profits for the current year after providing for depreciation as per Schedule II; (ii) undistributed profits of any previous year(s) after providing for depreciation; or (iii) both. Revaluation reserves and unrealised gains cannot be treated as profits for this purpose.
Step 1 — Verification of Depreciation Provision:
ABC Ltd. has provided ₹1,200 lakhs as depreciation in accordance with Schedule II of the Companies Act, 2013. This is a mandatory pre-condition before appropriating profits for dividend. The condition is satisfied.
Step 2 — Computation of Distributable Profit (Current Year):
Profit After Tax (PAT) for FY 2024-25 = ₹1,350 lakhs. This amount is arrived at after full provision for depreciation (₹1,200 lakhs) and tax (₹450 lakhs), and represents legally distributable current year profit.
Step 3 — Transfer to Reserves:
Under the Companies Act, 2013, there is no mandatory requirement to transfer any fixed percentage of profits to reserves before declaring dividend (the mandatory 10% transfer under the erstwhile Companies Act, 1956 was abolished). The Board may voluntarily transfer to reserves, but it is not a precondition. Accordingly, no deduction is required from PAT on this account.
Step 4 — Total Sources Available for Dividend:
Current year PAT: ₹1,350 lakhs; Accumulated retained earnings: ₹2,000 lakhs; Free reserves (excluding revaluation): ₹500 lakhs. Total available pool = ₹3,850 lakhs.
Step 5 — Proposed Dividend Amount:
Dividend declared = ₹3 per share on face value of ₹10 (i.e., 30% on face value). Total payout = 100 lakh shares × ₹3 = ₹300 lakhs.
Step 6 — Coverage Check:
Proposed dividend (₹300 lakhs) is well within the current year PAT alone (₹1,350 lakhs). There is no need to draw from free reserves or accumulated profits. The proposed dividend represents approximately 22.2% of current year PAT — a conservative payout.
Step 7 — Applicability of Proviso to Section 123(1):
The proviso requires that if the company had incurred a loss in any previous year(s), the amount of loss or depreciation for that year (whichever is less) must be set off against current year profits before declaring dividend. Since ABC Ltd. has substantial accumulated retained earnings of ₹2,000 lakhs, there is no prior year loss. This proviso is not triggered.
Step 8 — Other Mandatory Conditions under Section 123:
(i) Separate Bank Account [Section 123(4)]: The dividend amount of ₹300 lakhs must be deposited in a scheduled bank in a separate account within 5 days from the date of declaration. (ii) Payment Timeline [Section 123(5)]: Dividend must be paid to shareholders within 30 days of declaration. Failure attracts interest at 18% p.a. (iii) No dividend on shares carrying arrears of calls-in-arrears — shares on which any call money is unpaid cannot receive dividend unless articles provide otherwise.
Conclusion: The proposed dividend of ₹3 per share (₹300 lakhs total) is in full compliance with Section 123 of the Companies Act, 2013. Depreciation has been duly provided per Schedule II, current year profits are sufficient to cover the entire payout without resorting to reserves, no mandatory reserve transfer is required, and no prior year losses exist. Subject to procedural compliance (separate bank account within 5 days, payment within 30 days), the dividend declaration is legally valid.
📖 Section 123 of the Companies Act 2013Rule 3 of the Companies (Declaration and Payment of Dividend) Rules 2014Schedule II of the Companies Act 2013Section 123(4) of the Companies Act 2013Section 123(5) of the Companies Act 2013
Q1Private Company – Rights Issue – Notice Requirements under C
2 marks easy
Case: Novus Labs LLP was formed in 2019 by three practicing technologists. Asha (designated partner no.1), Rohan (designated partner no. 2) and Mira (partner). In 2023 the company decided to raise institutional capital and to offer stock options to employees. The LLP converted into a company on 10 October 2024. Novus Labs Pvt. Ltd. (the Company) was incorporated; Asha became Managing Director and retained 40% stake. The Board approved a private placement offer to identified investors aggregating to 205 persons (including 5 Qualified Institutional Buyers and 10 employees). The company proposed a capi…
The company sent the rights notice to shareholders only two days prior to opening the issue. Considering Sections 62 – 62 implications and conversion of LLP to Company (designated partner Asha is now MD), which statement is true?
(A) The rights issue is valid in a private company since the shareholders' written consent obtained 90%; so the 2-day notice is acceptable for this private company; Asha (formerly designated partner) will be treated as non-director for compliance purposes until the based filing penalty provision if default occurs.
(B) The rights issue is invalid because Section 62 requires a minimum of 15 days' notice to shareholders and no member consent can shorten this statutory minimum period.
(C) The rights issue is valid only if the company is listed; for unlisted private companies Section 62 does not apply.
(D) The rights issue is valid only if the company simultaneously increases its authorised capital first by an ordinary resolution and also obtain written consent from the shareholders holding not less than 99% share; otherwise the offer is void.
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Answer: (B) The rights issue is invalid because Section 62 requires a minimum of 15 days' notice to shareholders and no member consent can shorten this statutory minimum period.
Section 62(1)(c) of the Companies Act 2013 explicitly mandates that the rights offer "shall remain open for a period fixed by the Board but not less than fifteen days and not more than thirty days from the date of opening the issue." This is a statutory minimum threshold that operates as a mandatory procedural safeguard.
The fundamental principle in company law is that statutory minimum periods cannot be waived, modified, or shortened through shareholder consent—regardless of unanimity. Even though 90% shareholders consented to short notice via email, this does not override the statutory floor set in Section 62. The 2-day notice period fails to comply with the 15-day minimum.
While Novus Labs Pvt. Ltd. is a private company and does benefit from certain procedural relaxations under the Companies Act (such as written consent replacing meetings), these relaxations apply to meeting procedures and administrative formalities, not to substantive statutory minimums like notice periods for rights issues. Section 62 applies uniformly to all companies—public, private, listed, and unlisted—without distinction on this requirement.
The requirement exists to ensure shareholder opportunity to evaluate the offer and exercise informed decision-making. It is not discretionary.
Why other options fail: (A) incorrectly assumes member consent can shorten statutory minimums and adds irrelevant director liability language; (C) fundamentally misrepresents the law by claiming Section 62 applies only to listed companies; (D) introduces a fabricated 99% threshold and conflates capital authorization (a separate requirement) with rights issue validity.
📖 Section 62(1)(c) of the Companies Act 2013
Q1Auditor Disqualification and Appointment
2 marks easy
Which of the following provisions currently applies in this situation?
(A) When an auditor becomes disqualified, the auditor must vacate the position and such vacation shall be deemed to be a casual vacancy and the company is required to appoint another eligible auditor.
(B) The regulatory authority has the power to directly appoint a new auditor for the company.
(C) The law requires the company to rotate its auditors periodically each financial year.
(D) The company may retain the same auditor by passing a special resolution at the next AGM.
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Answer: (A) When an auditor becomes disqualified, the auditor must vacate the position and such vacation shall be deemed to be a casual vacancy and the company is required to appoint another eligible auditor.
Explanation: Under Section 141 of the Companies Act, 2013, various disqualifications for auditors are prescribed. When an auditor becomes subject to any disqualification, Section 139(1) requires that auditor to vacate office. Crucially, this vacation is treated as a casual vacancy in the office of the auditor, not a regular retirement or expiration of tenure. Upon such casual vacancy, the company must appoint a new eligible auditor within 30 days as per Section 140 of the Act, following the prescribed procedures (including notice to members and approval at a general meeting for the remaining period). Option (B) is incorrect because regulatory authorities do not have direct appointment powers; the Central Government may give directions under Section 142 only in extraordinary circumstances. Option (C) is incorrect as there is no mandatory yearly rotation—auditors can be reappointed after their tenure of two consecutive five-year terms (except for the mandatory 5-year gap after 10 years). Option (D) is incorrect because once an auditor is disqualified, the company cannot retain them through any resolution; the disqualification operates by law.
📖 Section 139 of the Companies Act, 2013Section 140 of the Companies Act, 2013Section 141 of the Companies Act, 2013Section 142 of the Companies Act, 2013
Q2Auditor Eligibility and Disqualification
2 marks easy
Regarding Vikas & Associates holding 10,000 shares in the personal capacity of Vikas Hedge's house (not in the name of House), should this argument be treated under professional ethics and company law?
(A) Acceptable, as the shares were not in the auditor's name.
(B) Acceptable only if disclosed to the board before appointment.
(C) Not acceptable as relatives' shareholding is also considered as disqualification.
(D) Acceptable if the auditor's spouse had no voting rights.
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Answer: (C)
Under Section 141(3)(f) of the Companies Act, 2013, an auditor is disqualified if he "holds any security of or in, or is financially interested in, any manner whatsoever in the company or its subsidiary." This disqualification applies regardless of whether the shares are held in personal capacity or in another person's name—what matters is beneficial interest.
Crucially, Section 141(3)(g) extends this disqualification to relatives: "he is a partner, or an employee, or a relative, of a partner or an employee of such person as is mentioned in clause (f)." Therefore, if a relative of the auditor (including spouse, family members in the same household) holds shares in the company, the auditor becomes disqualified.
Options (A) and (D) wrongly assume the shares being in another's name or lacking voting rights cures the disqualification—they do not. Option (B) incorrectly suggests disclosure to the board makes it acceptable; disqualifications cannot be cured by disclosure and must be remedied before appointment. Option (C) correctly identifies that relatives' shareholding is a ground for disqualification under Section 141(3)(g), making the arrangement unacceptable under both company law and professional ethics (as per ICAI's Code of Ethics for Chartered Accountants).
📖 Section 141(3)(f) of the Companies Act, 2013Section 141(3)(g) of the Companies Act, 2013ICAI Code of Ethics for Chartered Accountants
Q2(a)Share allotment, prospectus disclosures, Companies Act 2013
5 marks hard
Case: Amrit Prakash Ltd. - incorporated 1996, issued 10,00,000 equity shares at ₹10 each to public via prospectus with ₹50,00,000 minimum subscription, application rejected for stock exchange listing.
Amrit Prakash Ltd. was incorporated in 1996 and its registered office is in Dehradun. The company uses equipment (including its Spare Parts) to mobile accessories also, it required capital and for this the Company issued 10,00,000 equity shares of ₹10 each at par to the public by issuing a prospectus. The prospectus discloses the minimum subscription amount of ₹50,00,000 required to be received an application of shares and share application money shall be payable at ₹5 per share. The prospectus further reveals that Amrit Prakash Ltd. has applied for listing of shares in recognised stock exchanges of which application has been rejected. The issue was fully subscribed and Amrit Prakash Ltd. received an amount of ₹50,00,000 on share application. Amrit Prakash Ltd., then proceeded for allotment of shares. Examine the disclosures in the above case study which are the deciding factors in an allotment of shares and the consequences if any allotment of shares is made under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.
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Examining Disclosures and Consequences of Allotment — Amrit Prakash Ltd.
The case involves two critical disclosures in the prospectus that govern whether a valid allotment of shares can be made under the Companies Act, 2013.
Disclosure 1: Minimum Subscription (Section 39 of the Companies Act, 2013)
Section 39(1) provides that no allotment of securities offered to the public shall be made unless the amount stated in the prospectus as minimum subscription has been subscribed, and the sums payable on application for such amount have been received by the company.
In the present case:
- Minimum subscription disclosed in prospectus: ₹50,00,000
- Application money per share: ₹5 per share
- Total shares issued: 10,00,000 shares
- Application money actually received: 10,00,000 × ₹5 = ₹50,00,000
The amount received (₹50,00,000) equals the minimum subscription amount (₹50,00,000). Therefore, the minimum subscription condition under Section 39 is satisfied.
However, under Section 39(3), if the minimum amount has not been subscribed and received within 30 days from the date of issue of prospectus (or such other period as SEBI may prescribe), the money received shall be repaid within such time as prescribed. Non-compliance makes directors jointly and severally liable to repay with interest at the rate of 15% per annum. In this case, since minimum subscription is received, this concern does not arise.
Disclosure 2: Rejection of Stock Exchange Listing Application (Section 40 of the Companies Act, 2013)
This is the decisive factor that renders the proposed allotment invalid.
Section 40(1) mandates that every company making a public offer shall, before making such offer, apply to one or more recognised stock exchanges for permission for the shares to be dealt in at that exchange.
Section 40(2) provides that where a prospectus states that an application has been made for permission for shares to be listed and dealt in on a recognised stock exchange, any allotment made shall be VOID if the permission has not been granted by the stock exchange before expiry of the time specified.
In the present case, the prospectus itself discloses that the application for listing on recognised stock exchanges has been rejected. Since the required permission has not been granted (in fact, it has been expressly refused), Amrit Prakash Ltd. cannot lawfully proceed with allotment. Any allotment made in these circumstances shall be void ab initio under Section 40(2).
Consequences of Making Allotment Despite Rejection
(a) Allotment declared Void: Any allotment made by Amrit Prakash Ltd. shall be void under Section 40(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, as listing permission was denied.
(b) Obligation to Repay Application Money: Under Section 40(3), the company is required to forthwith repay all application money received (₹50,00,000). If repayment is not made within 15 days from the date of closure of the issue, the directors of the company shall be jointly and severally liable to repay that money with interest at 15% per annum from the expiry of the 15th day.
(c) Penal Consequences under Section 40(5): If any default is made in compliance with Section 40, the company shall be liable to a penalty of minimum ₹5 lakhs extendable to ₹50 lakhs. Every officer of the company who is in default shall be punishable with imprisonment up to 1 year or a fine of minimum ₹50,000 extendable to ₹3 lakhs, or both.
Conclusion: Of the two disclosures, the rejection of the stock exchange listing application is the critical deciding factor. Despite the minimum subscription condition being technically fulfilled, Amrit Prakash Ltd. cannot proceed with allotment as the listing application has been rejected. Any allotment made shall be void, application money must be refunded, and the company and its defaulting officers shall be exposed to the penalties specified above under the Companies Act, 2013.
📖 Section 39 of the Companies Act 2013 — Allotment of Securities by CompanySection 39(1) of the Companies Act 2013 — Minimum Subscription condition for allotmentSection 39(3) of the Companies Act 2013 — Repayment if minimum subscription not receivedSection 40(1) of the Companies Act 2013 — Obligation to apply to recognised stock exchange before public offerSection 40(2) of the Companies Act 2013 — Allotment void if listing permission not grantedSection 40(3) of the Companies Act 2013 — Repayment of application money and interest at 15% p.a.Section 40(5) of the Companies Act 2013 — Penalties for non-compliance
Q2(b)Maximum permissible deposits, deposit regulations, Companies
5 marks medium
Case: PRT Ltd. - eligible private company with specified balance sheet and existing deposits, proposing to accept additional deposits from members and general public.
PRT Ltd. is an eligible private company. The following details are available from its audited balance sheet as on 31st March 2024: Paid-up Share Capital: ₹20 crore; Free Reserves: ₹8 crore; Securities Premium Account: ₹2 crore; Existing deposits from members: ₹2 crore; Existing deposits from public (excluding members): ₹5 crore. The company now proposes to accept further deposits during the year 2024-25: (1) ₹3 crore from its members; and (2) ₹2 crore from persons other than members (general public). You are required to examine, with reference to the relevant provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, whether the above proposal is valid. If not, calculate the maximum permissible deposits in each category.
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Applicable Law: Section 73(2) of the Companies Act 2013 read with Rule 3(1)(c) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014.
Base for computing limits:
| Particulars | ₹ (crore) |
|---|---|
| Paid-up Share Capital | 20 |
| Free Reserves | 8 |
| Securities Premium Account | 2 |
| Aggregate Base | 30 |
Proposal 1 — Deposits from Members (₹3 crore)
Under Rule 3(1)(c) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014, a private company may accept deposits from its members up to 100% of the aggregate of paid-up share capital, free reserves and securities premium account.
Maximum permissible (total) = 100% × ₹30 crore = ₹30 crore
Less: Existing deposits from members already outstanding = ₹2 crore
Maximum additional deposits permissible from members = ₹30 − ₹2 = ₹28 crore
Proposal of ₹3 crore < ₹28 crore → Proposal is VALID.
Proposal 2 — Deposits from Persons other than Members/Public (₹2 crore)
Section 73(2) of the Companies Act 2013 permits a company to accept deposits only from its members, subject to prescribed conditions. Acceptance of deposits from the general public (non-members) is governed by Section 76 of the Act, which is available only to eligible companies that are public companies (having net worth ≥ ₹100 crore or turnover ≥ ₹500 crore). PRT Ltd., being a private company, does not qualify as an eligible company under Section 76.
Therefore, a private company cannot accept deposits from persons other than its members. The maximum permissible deposits from the public (non-members) = ₹0 (Nil).
Proposal of ₹2 crore from non-members → Proposal is NOT VALID.
Conclusion:
- Acceptance of ₹3 crore from members: Permissible (total outstanding would be ₹5 crore, within the ₹30 crore ceiling).
- Acceptance of ₹2 crore from public (non-members): Not permissible — a private company has no authority under the Companies Act 2013 to accept deposits from persons other than its members. Maximum permissible from non-members = Nil.
📖 Section 73(2) of the Companies Act 2013Section 76 of the Companies Act 2013Rule 3(1)(c) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014
Q2(c)Cost auditor appointment timeline, General Clauses Act 1897,
4 marks hard
Case: ABC Ltd. - life-saving drugs manufacturer in Kerala with turnover exceeding ₹52 crore, board appointed cost auditor on 1 August 2024.
ABC Ltd. is in the business of manufacturing life-saving drugs. The company has a plant in Kerala. The turnover for the last financial year crossed ₹52 crore. During the first quarter of the current financial year (2024-2025), the company's turnover has already reached ₹50 crore. ABC Ltd. is expecting turnover to reach ₹200 crore by the end of financial year 2024-25. The company held its board meeting on August 1, 2024, and decided to appoint a cost auditor for the financial year 2024-25.
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Sub-part (1): Filing Deadline for Cost Auditor Appointment
ABC Ltd. manufactures life-saving drugs, which fall under a regulated sector. As its turnover exceeds the prescribed threshold, it is required to get its cost records audited under Rule 6 of the Companies (Cost Records and Audit) Rules, 2014 read with Section 148 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Upon appointment of the cost auditor at the Board meeting on 1 August 2024, ABC Ltd. is required to intimate the Central Government by filing Form CRA-2 within 30 days of the Board meeting.
Under Section 9 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, when a period of time is expressed as commencing 'from' a specified day, that day is excluded from the computation. Since the Board meeting was held on 1 August 2024, the counting of 30 days begins from 2 August 2024.
Accordingly:
- Day 1 of the 30-day period = 2 August 2024
- Day 30 of the 30-day period = 31 August 2024
ABC Ltd. must file Form CRA-2 on or before 31 August 2024.
Additionally, it may be noted that the appointment itself must be made within 180 days of the commencement of the financial year (i.e., within 180 days of 1 April 2024, which is on or before 28 September 2024). The Board appointment on 1 August 2024 is within this statutory limit.
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Sub-part (2): Meaning of 'Offence' under the General Clauses Act, 1897
Section 3(38) of the General Clauses Act, 1897 defines 'offence' as follows:
*"Offence shall mean any act or omission made punishable by any law for the time being in force."*
Applied to the present case, the failure of ABC Ltd. to appoint a cost auditor — where such appointment is statutorily mandated under Section 148 of the Companies Act, 2013 — constitutes an omission. Since this omission is made punishable by the Companies Act, 2013 (which is a law in force), it squarely falls within the definition of 'offence' under the General Clauses Act, 1897. The definition thus covers both active acts (commissions) and passive inactions (omissions) that attract penal consequences under any existing law.
📖 Section 148 of the Companies Act 2013Rule 6 of the Companies (Cost Records and Audit) Rules 2014Section 9 of the General Clauses Act 1897Section 3(38) of the General Clauses Act 1897
Q3Depreciation claims and Securities Premium Account under Com
0 marks easy
Based on the above information, analyse whether ARD Ltd. is eligible to claim depreciation under the following scenarios in compliance with the Companies Act, 2013. Support your answer with appropriate provisions and calculations under the Companies Act, 2013.
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Part (a): Eligibility of ARD Ltd. to Claim Depreciation
(1) Out of Current Year's Profits — YES, ELIGIBLE
A company is eligible to claim depreciation out of current year's profits. Under Schedule II of the Companies Act, 2013, depreciation is a mandatory accounting treatment, not discretionary. Depreciation must be provided as an expense in the Profit & Loss Account annually using the Straight-Line Method (SLM) at prescribed rates based on asset category and useful life. Depreciation is an essential deduction in calculating profit and directly reduces the current year's earnings. This treatment applies irrespective of profit position—even companies with lower profits must provide depreciation as per prescribed rates.
(2) Out of Accumulated Profits of Previous Years Only — NOT ELIGIBLE
A company cannot claim depreciation only out of accumulated profits of previous years. Depreciation for current year assets must be provided from current year profits as per Schedule II rates for each financial year. Depreciation is an ongoing annual accounting treatment tied to asset usage in the current period, not a distribution or allocation from past reserves. Accumulated profits are reserved primarily for dividend declarations (subject to Section 123 restrictions) and statutory transfers, not for meeting current year depreciation obligations. If prior year depreciation was inadequate, any catch-up adjustment would be an accounting correction, not a permissible alternative approach.
Part (b): Securities Premium Account — Examination of Proposed Uses
Under Section 52 of the Companies Act, 2013, the Securities Premium Account has strictly defined permitted uses. Any use outside Section 52(2) is prohibited.
(1) Write-off of Advertisement Expenses (₹50 lakhs) — NOT VALID
This use is invalid. Section 52(2)(c) permits writing off only "preliminary expenses" — expenses incurred before the company commences business (e.g., registration, legal fees, pre-launch setup). Advertisement expenses incurred during product launch are revenue/operating expenses of the current or prior operating period, not preliminary expenses. These must be charged to the P&L Account in the period incurred under normal accounting principles. Using Securities Premium to offset marketing costs violates statutory restrictions and misclassifies operating expenses.
(2) Issue of Fully Paid Bonus Shares (₹2 crore) — VALID
This use is valid. Section 52(2)(a) explicitly permits: "issuing fully paid bonus shares to members." Bonus shares must be fully paid from the Securities Premium Account (or reserves). Since the company has ₹10 crore in SPA and the bonus share issuance requires ₹2 crore, sufficient balance exists. This is a standard capital restructuring tool and fully compliant with statutory requirements.
(3) Premium on Redemption of Preference Shares (₹1.5 crore) — VALID
This use is valid. Section 52(2)(d) explicitly permits: "premium payable on redemption of preference shares or debentures." When preference shares are redeemed at a premium above par value, that premium can be funded from the Securities Premium Account rather than free reserves, preserving equity cushion. This is a specifically designed permitted use under the Companies Act and protects equity shareholders.
(4) Distribution as Interim Dividend (₹1 crore) — NOT VALID
This use is invalid. Section 52(1) clearly states the Securities Premium Account "shall not be utilized except for the purposes mentioned in sub-section (2)." Dividend distribution—interim or otherwise—is not listed as a permitted purpose. Additionally, Section 123 restricts dividend declarations exclusively to current year profits and accumulated profits, explicitly excluding the Securities Premium Account. Using SPA for dividend distribution constitutes a statutory violation and unauthorized capital distribution.
📖 Schedule II, Companies Act, 2013 (Depreciation rates and method)Section 52, Companies Act, 2013 (Securities Premium Account uses)Section 52(2)(a), Companies Act, 2013 (Bonus shares)Section 52(2)(c), Companies Act, 2013 (Preliminary expenses)Section 52(2)(d), Companies Act, 2013 (Preference share redemption premium)Section 123, Companies Act, 2013 (Dividend declaration restrictions)
Q3Auditor Eligibility, Section 139, Companies Act 2013
2 marks easy
Case: Case Scenario - II: In Hyderabad's tech hub, Horizon Innovations Ltd. was a fast-growing company. In 2022, the company faced a serious problem—audit with its technology, but the auditor who was supposed to audit its financial statements. At the AGM on September 30, 2021, shareholders appointed M/s. Vikas & Associates as statutory auditor for 2021–22. The firm's lead partner, Vikas Reddy, was a respected CA with 15 years of experience. Most shareholders trusted him, but one investor, Anjali Desai, who had checked the auditor's background, who found following issues: Vikas Reddy's spouse owned 1…
The audit firm did not furnish the eligibility certificate as prescribed before its appointment. What is the importance of this certificate?
(A) It is a voluntary self-declaration provided at the auditor's discretion.
(B) It is a mandatory requirement under Section 139(1) read with Rule 4 of the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014, ensuring the auditor satisfies the eligibility criteria under Section 141.
(C) It is a requirement applicable only to listed companies.
(D) It is a certificate issued by ICAI attesting to the auditor's professional competence.
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Answer: (B)
The eligibility certificate is a mandatory requirement under Section 139(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, read with Rule 4 of the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014. The proposed auditor must furnish this certificate to confirm that they satisfy all eligibility criteria prescribed in Section 141 and do not fall within any disqualification. The certificate serves as a critical compliance mechanism ensuring auditor independence, transparency, and protection of shareholder interests before appointment is finalized. In the case scenario, the absence of this certificate allowed multiple disqualifications—spouse shareholding, outstanding loan, and provision of other services—to remain undisclosed until an investor complaint triggered investigation.
📖 Section 139(1), Companies Act 2013Rule 4, Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014Section 141, Companies Act 2013Section 144, Companies Act 2013
Q3(a)Company registration, name reservation, incorporation
18 marks very hard
Case: Dafrose Pvt. Ltd. - Company registration and incorporation scenario
A group of five professionals decided to start a private limited company in the anti-drone solutions sector under the name Dafrose Pvt. Ltd. in April 2025. The company wants to have its registered office in Mumbai. On April 2, 2025, it applied for name reservation through RUN (Reserve Unique Name) and received approval on April 2, 2025. On May 15, 2025, due to a delay in documentation, the SPICe+ (Simplified Proforma for Incorporating Company Electronically) Plus (INC-32) form for incorporation was rejected after 39 days from the date of name reservation. The company proposed two directors, one Indian resident, one foreign national residing in the U.S. The foreign director did not have a DIN, and his passport was notarized but not apostilled. The company's registered office address was not finalized at the time of filing INC-32. Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association (AoA) were signed electronically, but one subscriber used a digital signature of a third party (his consultant), with others. Based on the above facts and applicable provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, answer the following questions:
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(i) Validity of Name 'Dafrose Pvt. Ltd.' when INC-32 was filed on May 15, 2025
Under Rule 9 of the Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014, when a name is reserved through the RUN (Reserve Unique Name) facility, the approved name is valid for a period of 20 days from the date of approval by the Registrar of Companies.
In the present case, the name 'Dafrose Pvt. Ltd.' was approved on April 2, 2025. The 20-day validity period expired on April 22, 2025. The SPICe+ (INC-32) form was filed on May 15, 2025, which is 43 days after name approval — well beyond the 20-day window.
Conclusion: The name 'Dafrose Pvt. Ltd.' was no longer valid when INC-32 was filed on May 15, 2025. The name reservation had lapsed. The company was required to make a fresh application for name reservation through RUN before proceeding with incorporation. The rejection of INC-32 was therefore justified on this ground alone.
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(ii) Mandatory requirement of registered office at incorporation and time limit
Under Section 12(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, a company shall, on and from the fifteenth day of its incorporation, have a registered office capable of receiving and acknowledging communications and notices.
However, it is not mandatory to provide the final verified registered office address at the exact time of filing the incorporation form. Section 12(2) of the Companies Act, 2013 read with Rule 25 of the Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014 provides that the company shall furnish to the Registrar verification of its registered office within a period of 30 days from the date of its incorporation.
Verification is submitted via Form INC-22 and must be accompanied by documents such as proof of registered office (e.g., sale deed/lease deed/rent agreement) and a utility bill (not older than two months) in the name of the owner or occupant.
Conclusion: The company can file INC-32 with a proposed/tentative address, but must submit the verified registered office details in Form INC-22 within 30 days of incorporation. Failure to do so renders the company and every officer in default liable to a penalty under Section 12(8) — ₹1,000 per day of continuing default, subject to a maximum of ₹1,00,000.
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(iii) Consequences of failure to file commencement of business declaration and failure to carry on business
Section 10A of the Companies Act, 2013 (inserted by the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019) mandates that a company incorporated after the commencement of this provision and having a share capital shall not commence any business or exercise any borrowing powers unless a director files a declaration in Form INC-20A with the Registrar within 180 days of the date of incorporation, confirming that every subscriber has paid the value of shares agreed to be taken.
Consequences of failure to file the declaration (Section 10A(2)):
- The company shall be liable to a penalty of ₹50,000.
- Every officer in default shall be liable to a penalty of ₹1,000 for each day during which the default continues, subject to a maximum of ₹1,00,000.
Consequence of not carrying on business or operations (Section 10A(3)):
Where no declaration has been filed within 180 days and the Registrar has reasonable cause to believe that the company is not carrying on any business or operations, the Registrar may — without prejudice to the penalties above — initiate action for removal (striking off) of the company's name from the Register of Companies under Chapter XVIII (Section 248) of the Companies Act, 2013.
Conclusion: Non-compliance with Section 10A exposes the company to financial penalties and, critically, to compulsory strike-off proceedings. This is a severe consequence that effectively nullifies the incorporation. Dafrose Pvt. Ltd. must ensure timely filing of Form INC-20A after incorporation to avoid these consequences.
📖 Rule 9 of the Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014 — 20-day validity of RUN name approvalSection 12(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 — registered office requirement from 15th day of incorporationSection 12(2) of the Companies Act, 2013 — 30-day window to furnish verification of registered officeRule 25 of the Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014 — Form INC-22 for registered office verificationSection 12(8) of the Companies Act, 2013 — penalty for default in registered office complianceSection 10A of the Companies Act, 2013 — declaration for commencement of business (Form INC-20A)Section 248 of the Companies Act, 2013 — power of Registrar to strike off company name (Chapter XVIII)
Q3(b)Charge registration, Register of Charges, legal validity
5 marks hard
Case: LMN Ltd. - Charge registration and authentication scenario
LMN Ltd. created a charge on one of its plant and machinery in favor of a financial institution. The company secretary also authorized the charge creation. To avoid delay, an accounts officer of the company entered the particulars of the charge in the Register of Charges without any authorization of the Board. Later, a dispute arose between two creditors regarding priority of charges. One creditor challenged the validity of the Register entry, claiming that the entries were unauthorized and not duly authenticated as per law. The Board, at the Companies (Registration of Charges) Rules 2014, examines whether the entry made in the Register of Charges, by the accounts officer is legally valid and what consequences may follow in case of non-authentication.
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Legality of the Register Entry:
The entry made by the accounts officer in the Register of Charges is legally invalid. Under Section 77 of the Companies Act, 2013 and the Companies (Registration of Charges) Rules 2014, entries in the statutory Register of Charges must be made by a duly authorized person and properly authenticated. The accounts officer acted without explicit Board authorization to make this entry. Critically, the company secretary's authorization—while indicating approval of the charge creation itself—does NOT constitute authorization for making the Register entry, as these are distinct functions. Authentication requires the entry to be signed/attested by an authorized person confirming its accuracy and authenticity. The absence of both proper authorization and authentication renders the Register entry defective and legally invalid.
Consequences of Non-Authentication and Unauthorized Entry:
Against the Company: Under Section 86 of the Companies Act, 2013, the company is liable to penalties for maintaining a defective Register of Charges. Directors and officers responsible for statutory record-keeping may face regulatory action and fines. The company's compliance record deteriorates.
Effect on the Charging Creditor: The charge itself remains valid and enforceable—it was properly created between the company and the financial institution. However, the unauthorized and unauthenticated Register entry has critical legal consequences:
- The defective entry provides NO constructive notice to other creditors (as it lacks legal validity)
- The creditor CANNOT use this Register entry to establish or claim priority over competing charges
- Priority of charges is determined by the date of actual creation of the charge, not the date of Register entry
- The creditor must establish its charge through alternative evidence (deed, Board resolutions, consideration paid, registration with Registrar under Section 77)
For the Challenging Creditor: The challenger's objection is valid and well-founded. An unauthorized and unauthenticated Register entry has no legal effect and cannot bind third parties or support any priority claim by the opposing creditor.
Priority Determination: The competing creditors' priority will be resolved based on:
1. Dates of actual charge creation (not Register entry dates)
2. Proper registration with the Registrar under Section 77 within 30 days
3. Whether charges are fixed or floating
4. Any creditor agreements regarding priority
Corrective Measures: The company must immediately:
1. Obtain Board authorization/ratification of the Register entry (even retrospectively if needed)
2. Have an authorized officer re-authenticate the entry with proper signatures
3. Ensure future compliance with Section 77, Section 78, and Rule 3 of the Companies (Registration of Charges) Rules 2014
4. Remedy the penalty liability under Section 86
The core principle: Statutory compliance requires both authorization AND authentication. Absence of either invalidates the Register entry, though it does not invalidate the underlying charge between the company and creditor.
📖 Section 77 of the Companies Act, 2013Section 78 of the Companies Act, 2013Section 86 of the Companies Act, 2013Section 170 of the Companies Act, 2013Companies (Registration of Charges) Rules 2014Schedule IV of the Companies Act, 2013
Q3(c)Rules of construction in company law
4 marks medium
Write any four differences between the Rule of Beneficial Construction and Rule of Restrictive Construction.
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The Rule of Beneficial Construction and Rule of Restrictive Construction are two important principles of construction in company law applied to interpret the Memorandum and Articles of Association. The following are four key differences:
1. Nature and Scope of Interpretation: Under the Rule of Beneficial Construction, the provisions of the Memorandum and Articles are interpreted in a broad and liberal manner to give them the widest possible meaning that the language permits. Conversely, under the Rule of Restrictive Construction, these provisions are interpreted in a narrow and strict manner, limiting the scope of powers to only what is expressly stated in the documents.
2. Approach to Ambiguities: The Rule of Beneficial Construction resolves any ambiguities or doubts in the language in favor of the company, enabling it to exercise its powers effectively for the conduct of its business. The Rule of Restrictive Construction, however, resolves ambiguities against the exercise of the questioned power, as a protective measure for the shareholders' interests.
3. Application and Purpose: The Rule of Beneficial Construction is applied primarily to the internal management and administration of the company, allowing the Board and Management to have sufficient flexibility in conducting business operations. The Rule of Restrictive Construction is applied particularly to powers that may adversely affect the rights, interests, or property of shareholders, ensuring such powers are not exercised beyond their express grant.
4. Effect on Exercise of Powers: Under the Rule of Beneficial Construction, the company is presumed to have the power to do all acts and things necessary or incidental to the exercise of its stated objectives, thus facilitating business operations. Under the Rule of Restrictive Construction, the company is confined strictly to the powers expressly conferred, and any act outside these express powers is deemed ultra vires and void.
📖 Memorandum and Articles of Association provisionsCompany Law principles of constructionGeneral Law of Interpretation principles
Q4(a)Authentication of financial statements, Board authorization,
5 marks hard
Case: XYZ Petrochemicals Limited - Financial statements authentication scenario with OPC follow-up
The Board of Directors of XYZ Petrochemicals Limited consists of Mr. R (Managing Director), Mr. N (Director), Mr. P (Director), Mr. A (Chairperson), Mr. D (Chief Financial Officer, not a director) and Mr. C (Company Secretary). The Board as a policy does not authorize the chairperson of the company to sign the financial statements. The Profit and Loss Account and Balance Sheet of the company were signed by Mr. N, Mr. P and Mr. A. Examine whether the authentication of financial statements of the company was in accordance with the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. What would be the answer in case the company is a One Person Company (OPC) and has only one Director, who has authenticated the Balance Sheet and Statement of Profit & Loss and the Board's Report?
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Part (a): Authentication by XYZ Petrochemicals Limited
Applicable Provision: Section 134(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 governs the authentication of financial statements.
As per Section 134(1), financial statements shall be signed on behalf of the Board of Directors by:
1. The Chairperson, where he is authorised by the Board; OR
2. Two directors, out of which one shall be the Managing Director (where there is an MD); AND
3. The Chief Executive Officer, if he is a director;
4. The Chief Financial Officer, wherever appointed; AND
5. The Company Secretary, wherever appointed.
Analysis of the given case:
The Board has not authorised Mr. A (Chairperson) to sign the financial statements. Therefore, the financial statements must be signed by two directors, one of whom must be the Managing Director (Mr. R), along with the CFO and CS.
However, the financial statements were signed only by Mr. N, Mr. P, and Mr. A. The following defects exist:
- Mr. R (Managing Director) has not signed — mandatory requirement not met.
- Mr. D (Chief Financial Officer) has not signed — even though Mr. D is not a director, being the CFO he is required to sign.
- Mr. C (Company Secretary) has not signed — mandatory wherever appointed.
- Mr. A (Chairperson) has signed, but the Board has not authorised the Chairperson to sign — this signature is not valid.
Conclusion: The authentication of financial statements of XYZ Petrochemicals Limited is not in accordance with Section 134(1) of the Companies Act, 2013. The financial statements ought to have been signed by Mr. R (MD), one more director, Mr. D (CFO), and Mr. C (CS).
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Part (b): One Person Company (OPC) with a Single Director
Applicable Provision: The proviso to Section 134(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides a special rule for OPCs: *"in the case of a One Person Company, the financial statement shall be signed by only one director."*
Similarly, as per Section 134(3) read with Section 134(1), the Board's Report in case of an OPC is also to be signed by one director.
Analysis: Where the OPC has only one director and that director has authenticated both the Balance Sheet and the Statement of Profit & Loss, as well as the Board's Report, the authentication is fully compliant with the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. No further signatures are required since the OPC provision carves out an exception from the general two-director and CFO/CS requirement.
Conclusion: Authentication by the sole director of the OPC for the financial statements and the Board's Report is valid and in accordance with Section 134(1) of the Companies Act, 2013.
📖 Section 134(1) of the Companies Act, 2013Section 134(3) of the Companies Act, 2013
Q5Private Placement, Public Offer, Companies Act
2 marks easy
Is the fact above the company issued private placement invitation letters to xyz identified persons in aggregate during the financial year. Which of the statements is correct?
(A) The issue will be deemed to be a public offer (and Section 2 - 4) will imply because the total number of invitees exceeds 200, so Section 42 is violated.
(B) It's necessary to file any return of allotment (Form PAS-3) for private placement issued and hence has no filing exposure.
(C) Even if excluded, because any single allotment is more than 100 persons in aggregate, the issue is invalid and the entire subscription must be refunded.
(D) The issue will not be deemed a public offer because QIBs and employees under ESOP are excluded since computing the 200-person threshold, after excluding them the count is 190 (-200), so it remains a valid private placement subject to other procedural compliances.
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Answer: (D)
Under Section 42 of the Companies Act 2013, a private placement can be offered to not more than 50 persons in the financial year. Critically, certain categories are excluded when computing this 50-person threshold. These exclusions include: (i) Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs), and (ii) Employees of the company or its holding company under Employee Stock Option Plans (ESOP).
Option (D) correctly applies this principle. If invitation letters were sent to 200 persons total, but QIBs and ESOP-eligible employees are excluded, the count of ordinary persons may reduce to 190. Even if 190 persons remain, the fact that recognized exclusions have been applied and the intent was within the private placement framework means the issue will not be deemed a public offer. The transaction remains a valid private placement subject to other procedural compliances (including filing of Form PAS-3 and Form PAS-4 with the ROC within the prescribed timelines).
Option (A) is incorrect because it conflates the thresholds and suggests that 200 persons per se violates Section 42; the 50-person limit applies after statutory exclusions. Option (B) is wrong because Form PAS-3 (Return of Allotment) is mandatory for private placements within 30 days of allotment. Option (C) is incorrect because there is no provision invalidating an offer where a single allotment involves more than 100 persons; the person-count test is applied after exclusions.
📖 Section 42, Companies Act 2013Rule 14, Companies (Prospectus and Allotment of Securities) Rules 2014Section 2(68) – Definition of Qualified Institutional BuyerSection 2(76) – Definition of Public Offer
Q5aForeign Company Registration and Filing Requirements under C
5 marks hard
Zen Tech Ltd., a company incorporated in Singapore, has a branch office in Bengaluru, India. The financial year of the company ends on 31st March 2023. As per the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, Zen Tech Ltd. is required to file certain documents with the Registrar of Companies (ROC) every year. However, due to internal audit delays in the Singapore headquarters, the company could not finalize its financial statements by the end of September 2025.
(1) What documents need to be filed by Zen Tech Ltd. along with its financial statements, with the Registrar?
(2) By what time should these documents be filed?
Examine it as per the provisions of the Companies (Registration of Foreign Companies) Rules, 2014.
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(1) Documents to be filed with the Registrar of Companies:
Under Section 381 of the Companies Act, 2013 read with Rule 4 of the Companies (Registration of Foreign Companies) Rules, 2014, every foreign company having a place of business in India is required to file the following documents with the ROC in Form FC-3:
(a) Financial Statements of Indian Business Operations:
- Balance Sheet — prepared in accordance with Schedule III to the Companies Act, 2013 (unless exempted)
- Profit and Loss Account
- Cash Flow Statement (where applicable)
- All documents required to be annexed or attached to the above statements
(b) Supporting Documents:
- A list of all places of business established by Zen Tech Ltd. in India
- A statement of inward and outward remittances — showing (i) money received from persons resident in India, and (ii) money remitted outside India by or on behalf of the company
These documents shall be duly certified by a practicing Chartered Accountant or Company Secretary in India.
It is important to note that Zen Tech Ltd. must prepare separate financial statements for its Indian business operations (i.e., its Bengaluru branch), not the consolidated global accounts of the Singapore parent company.
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(2) Time Limit for Filing:
As per Rule 4(2) of the Companies (Registration of Foreign Companies) Rules, 2014, the financial statements along with the aforesaid documents must be filed with the ROC within 6 months from the close of the financial year of the foreign company.
In the case of Zen Tech Ltd.:
- Financial Year ends: 31st March 2023
- Prescribed due date: 30th September 2023 (6 months from close of FY)
Extension of time: Where the ROC is satisfied that it is not possible for the foreign company to comply with the requirement within the prescribed 6 months, the ROC may extend the period by a further period not exceeding 3 months. Thus, the maximum extended deadline would be 31st December 2023.
Position of Zen Tech Ltd.: Since Zen Tech Ltd. could not finalize its financial statements even by September 2025 — which is approximately 2 years beyond the prescribed due date and well beyond even the maximum extended deadline of 31st December 2023 — the company is in default. Such default attracts penalty under Section 392 of the Companies Act, 2013, which provides for punishment of a foreign company and every officer in default with a fine which may extend to ₹3 lakh and in case of continuing default, a further fine of ₹50,000 per day.
📖 Section 381 of the Companies Act, 2013Rule 4 of the Companies (Registration of Foreign Companies) Rules, 2014Schedule III to the Companies Act, 2013Section 392 of the Companies Act, 2013
Q5bLimited Liability Partnership - Address Change and Admission
5 marks hard
Amit and Priya are partners in XYZ LLP, a consulting firm. Recently, Priya moved to a new address but forgot to notify the LLP within the required period. A month later, Amit's cousin, Ramesh, expressed interest in joining XYZ LLP as a partner, and after a few discussions, he was accepted as a new partner. However, XYZ LLP did not immediately update the Registrar of Companies (ROC) regarding Priya's address change of Ramesh's admission as a partner. After 45 days of joining, Mr. Ramesh, the LLP filed a notice with the ROC about these changes. Advise the LLP about the default on part of LLP about the non-compliance regarding address change.
(i) Whether Mr. Priya contravene any provision regarding address change?
(ii) Default on non-compliance in Mr. Ramesh's admission as a partner.
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XYZ LLP — Non-Compliance Analysis under the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008
(i) Priya's Address Change — Contravention Analysis
Under Rule 21(2) of the LLP Rules, 2009, every partner of an LLP is obligated to intimate the LLP about any change in their personal details, including residential address, within 15 days of such change occurring. In the present case, Priya failed to notify XYZ LLP within this prescribed period. This constitutes a contravention on Priya's part.
Consequently, upon receipt of such intimation from Priya, the LLP is required to file Form 4 with the Registrar of Companies (ROC) under Section 25 of the LLP Act, 2008, read with the LLP Rules, 2009, within 30 days of such change. Since Priya herself defaulted in informing the LLP, the LLP's obligation to file with the ROC was also delayed, making both Priya and the designated partners of the LLP liable.
Penalty: Priya, having failed to inform the LLP within 15 days, is liable to a penalty of ₹100 per day for each day the default continues, subject to a maximum of ₹5,000, as per the applicable penalty provisions of the LLP Act (as amended by the LLP Amendment Act, 2021 which decriminalized several minor defaults and replaced them with civil monetary penalties).
(ii) Ramesh's Admission as Partner — Default on Non-Compliance
Under Section 25 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008, when any person becomes a partner or ceases to be a partner in an LLP, the LLP is required to file a notice with the Registrar in Form 4 within 30 days of such change. The purpose of this provision is to maintain an updated public record of the LLP's constitution.
In this case, Ramesh joined XYZ LLP as a new partner, but the LLP filed the notice with the ROC only after 45 days from the date of his admission. This means there is a delay of 15 days beyond the prescribed period of 30 days, constituting a clear default under Section 25.
Consequences of Default: Due to this non-compliance:
- XYZ LLP and every designated partner are liable to a penalty for the period of default (i.e., for 15 days).
- The penalty for such filing default is ₹100 per day for each day the default continues (i.e., 15 days), subject to the maximum penalty cap prescribed under the LLP Act.
- In addition to the monetary penalty, the LLP must file Form 4 immediately to regularise Ramesh's admission in the ROC records.
Summary of Defaults:
- Priya failed to intimate the LLP within 15 days — contravention under Rule 21(2) of LLP Rules, 2009.
- XYZ LLP filed Form 4 for Ramesh's admission after 45 days instead of 30 days — contravention under Section 25 of the LLP Act, 2008.
- Both defaults attract civil monetary penalties, and the LLP should immediately rectify the ROC filings to avoid continuing default.
📖 Section 25 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008Rule 21(2) of the LLP Rules, 2009Limited Liability Partnership (Amendment) Act, 2021Form 4 under LLP Rules, 2009
Q6Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA)
2 marks easy
Case: Globaltask Pvt. Ltd., a tech Services Company headquartered in India, plans to engage in the following exchange transactions: (1) Send sponsorship funds worth USD 1,30,000 to support a private tech conference abroad, organized by a non-governmental organization. (2) Remit royalty exceeding USD 1,50,000 under a technical collaboration agreement for licensing software developed overseas. (3) Make a marketing payment exceeding ₹ 15,000 under a scheme to promote international tourism (targeting foreign visitors). (4) Sponsor several cultural exchange tours for college students for USD 80,000. The …
Above said royalty remittance under a technical collaboration agreement - Which of the following is the correct option?
(A) Freely permissible without approval.
(B) Prohibited under Schedule I.
(C) Requires approval under Schedule II since the amount exceeds thresholds.
(D) Only allowed if remitted from an EXFC or RFC account.
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Answer: (C)
Royalty remittances under technical collaboration agreements are permitted current account transactions under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and the Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000. However, such payments fall under Schedule II of FEMA Rules, which permit transactions subject to RBI approval and specified conditions.
Key Analysis:
1. Nature of Transaction: Royalty for software licensing and technical know-how is a legitimate current account transaction and is not prohibited under Schedule I (eliminating option B).
2. Threshold Requirements: FEMA prescribes threshold limits for royalty remittances. While certain amounts may be freely permissible, payments exceeding ₹10 lakhs per financial year (or equivalent) require prior RBI approval or must comply with conditions specified by authorized dealers.
3. Amount Exceeds Threshold: USD 1,50,000 (approximately ₹1.25 crores at current exchange rates) substantially exceeds the permitted limit, making RBI approval mandatory. This eliminates option (A).
4. Schedule II Classification: Royalty payments under technical collaboration are classified as Schedule II transactions (permitted with conditions/approval), not freely permissible or prohibited transactions.
5. Account Restrictions: While EXFC and RFC accounts are mechanisms for foreign exchange transactions, royalty payments are not restricted exclusively to these accounts—they can be remitted through authorized dealer banks (eliminating option D).
Conclusion: Prior RBI approval under Schedule II is mandatory before remitting royalty exceeding USD 1,50,000. The remittance must be supported by a valid technical collaboration agreement and comply with RBI guidelines.
📖 Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000Schedule I and II of FEMA Rules
Q7Foreign Remittance Regulations
2 marks easy
Globacom has made two other remittances - (1) Marketing payment (₹ 15,000/-) in foreign print media to promote insurance (2) Cultural exchange tours sponsored worth USD 80,000. Which of the following is the correct option?
(A) Both (1) and (2) are freely permissible.
(B) (1) is allowed but (2) requires prior government approval.
(C) (1) requires approval, but (2) is freely permissible.
(D) (1) is prohibited, and (2) requires approval.
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Answer: (B)
Under the Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000 and RBI master directions:
Remittance (1) - Marketing payment (₹15,000) in foreign print media: This is freely permissible. Remittances for advertising and publicity of goods/services in foreign media constitute normal business expenses under current account operations. Insurance companies can freely remit funds for marketing and promotion of their products abroad without requiring prior government approval, provided proper documentation and forex dealer authorization are obtained.
Remittance (2) - Cultural exchange tours sponsored (USD 80,000): This requires prior approval. While cultural exchanges are encouraged at government level, direct financial sponsorship of events or tours abroad by corporate entities does not fall within the category of freely permissible remittances. Such sponsorships may be classified as gifts or donations, which are restricted under the Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS) and require RBI/government authorization depending on the nature and quantum. Sponsorship of cultural activities abroad typically necessitates specific approval from appropriate authorities before remittance can be made.
📖 Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000RBI Master Direction on Remittance Facilities for Individuals - Liberalized Remittance SchemeSection 47(vii) of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
Q8Foreign Remittance Regulations
2 marks easy
Related to the remittance of the amount mentioned for sponsoring a private tech conference abroad, which of the following is the correct option?
(A) Allowed freely as it's a promotion of trade.
(B) Prohibited under Schedule 1.
(C) Requires prior approval under Schedule II.
(D) Does not require approval from the Government if routed via FECF or RFC account.
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Answer: (C)
Remittance for sponsoring a private tech conference abroad falls under outward foreign remittances for promotional and business support services. Under the Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000 and related FEMA notifications, such remittances for conference sponsorships are not automatically permitted current account transactions. They require prior approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on a case-by-case basis, as these payments must satisfy compliance with India's foreign exchange policies and the purpose must be demonstrably genuine business promotion. Schedule II of the FEMA framework typically encompasses transactions requiring specific RBI approval rather than those that are either freely permitted or prohibited outright. Option (A) is incorrect as trade promotion does not automatically permit all outflows. Option (B) is incorrect as conference sponsorships are not blanket prohibited. Option (D) is incorrect as even FECF and RFC accounts do not exempt conference sponsorship remittances from prior RBI approval requirements for such payments.
📖 Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA)Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000RBI Notification on Foreign Exchange Remittance GuidelinesSchedule II - FEMA Transactions Requiring Approval
Q9SEBI Act and General Clauses Act
2 marks easy
Case: Mrs ABCD Capital Limited, a listed public company, was found guilty of manipulating the markets through false disclosures in its quarterly financial statements. The company's Managing Director, Mr. Arvind, was charged under: (1) Section 24D of the Companies Act, 2013 (Fraud) (2) Regulation 9 & 10 of the SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices) Regulations, 2003 read with Section 24 of the SEBI Act, 1992, for misleading investors and disturbing the securities market. The SEBI Adjudicating Officer imposed a monetary penalty of ₹ 25 lakh and recommended criminal prosecution. La…
If the SEBI Act, 1992 does not expressly exclude the application of Code of Criminal Procedure provisions for fine recovery, which of the following is correct as per the provisions of the General Clauses Act, 1897?
(A) The fine cannot be recovered under Code of Criminal Procedure because SEBI is a special law.
(B) Criminal Procedure provisions like issuance of warrant for levy of fines shall apply.
(C) SEBI must recover fines only through civil recovery suits.
(D) The Central Government must issue a separate recovery notification.
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Answer: (B)
This question tests the application of Section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, which establishes a default mechanism for fine recovery under special legislation.
Section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 provides that where any Central Act specifies the amount of fine for contravention of its provisions, such fine shall be recovered in accordance with the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, unless the Act expressly provides otherwise.
In this case, the SEBI Act, 1992 specifies monetary penalties but does not expressly exclude the application of CrPC provisions. Therefore, by operation of Section 6 of the General Clauses Act, the Criminal Procedure provisions automatically apply. This includes procedures for levy and recovery of fines such as issuance of warrants for levy, attachment of property, and other enforcement mechanisms under CrPC.
Option (A) is incorrect because special laws are not exempt from CrPC applicability—in fact, Section 6 mandates their application unless expressly excluded. Option (C) is incorrect because recovery is not limited to civil suits; criminal procedures are the default unless excluded. Option (D) is incorrect because no separate notification is required; the application is automatic under Section 6.
The answer is (B): Criminal Procedure provisions including issuance of warrant for levy of fines shall apply.
📖 Section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897Section 24 of the SEBI Act, 1992Regulation 9 & 10 of the SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices) Regulations, 2003Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Q9bLimited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 - Compromise and Arr
5 marks hard
ABC LLP is engaged in the business of providing software consulting services. Due to an economic slowdown, the LLP is unable to meet its obligations towards some creditors. The management of ABC LLP proposes a compromise arrangement with its creditors to restructure its outstanding debts by extending repayment periods and waiving a portion of interest.
The LLP files an application before the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), seeking directions to convene a meeting of its creditors.
At the meeting, creditors representing 80% of the total value of debts agree to the proposed arrangement. The Tribunal, after ensuring that all material facts including the LLP's latest financial statements and the disclosure of pending tax investigations have been presented, sanctions the compromise.
However, ABC LLP fails to file the Tribunal's order with the Registrar within the prescribed period. Examine the validity of compromise or arrangement approved by the creditors and sanctioned by the Tribunal with reference to the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008. Also explain the effect of failure by ABC LLP to file the Tribunal's order to the Registrar.
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Validity of the Compromise or Arrangement:
The provisions governing compromise and arrangement for LLPs are contained in Section 60 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008.
Under Section 60(1), where a compromise or arrangement is proposed between an LLP and its creditors, the Tribunal (NCLT) may, on the application of the LLP or any creditor, order a meeting of creditors to be called, held and conducted in such manner as the Tribunal directs. ABC LLP correctly filed an application before the NCLT — this procedural step is valid.
Under Section 60(2), the compromise or arrangement, if sanctioned by the Tribunal, becomes binding on all creditors and on the LLP provided a majority in number representing three-fourths (3/4th) in value of the creditors present and voting agree to it. In the given case, creditors representing 80% of the total value of debts agreed — this exceeds the statutory threshold of 75% in value. Hence, the voting requirement is duly satisfied.
Further, under Section 60(3), the Tribunal must satisfy itself before sanctioning that all material facts have been disclosed — such as the latest financial position and pendency of any investigation proceedings. In the present case, ABC LLP disclosed both its latest financial statements and the pending tax investigations to the Tribunal. Since the Tribunal sanctioned the arrangement after ensuring such disclosures, the procedural safeguards under Section 60(3) are fully complied with.
Conclusion on Validity: The compromise arrangement is valid and binding on all creditors of ABC LLP, since the requisite majority consented, material facts were disclosed, and the Tribunal duly sanctioned it.
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Effect of Failure to File the Tribunal's Order with the Registrar:
Under Section 60(4) of the LLP Act, 2008, a certified copy of the Tribunal's order sanctioning the compromise or arrangement must be filed with the Registrar of LLPs within 30 days of the making of the order (or within such other time as the Tribunal may direct).
The critical consequence is that until such filing is made, the order shall have no effect. This means:
1. The compromise arrangement, though sanctioned by the Tribunal, does not become operative or enforceable against creditors until the order is filed with the Registrar.
2. The benefit of extended repayment periods and waiver of interest — as agreed under the arrangement — cannot be availed of by ABC LLP.
3. The creditors retain their original rights and claims against ABC LLP during the period of non-filing.
4. Non-filing also constitutes a default under the LLP Act, and the LLP and its designated partners may be liable to penalty for such non-compliance.
In summary, the failure by ABC LLP to file the Tribunal's order with the Registrar within the prescribed 30-day period renders the compromise arrangement inoperative, even though it was validly passed and sanctioned. ABC LLP must immediately file the certified copy of the order to give legal effect to the arrangement.
📖 Section 60(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act 2008Section 60(2) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act 2008Section 60(3) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act 2008Section 60(4) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act 2008
Q9cStatutory Interpretation
0 marks easy
Statutory interpretation becomes essential when the language of a statute is unclear or leads to ambiguity. Discuss the circumstances under which the interpretation of statutes is applied.
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Statutory interpretation is the process of determining the true meaning and scope of the provisions of a statute. It becomes essential in several distinct circumstances:
1. Ambiguity and Obscurity of Language – When statutory language is ambiguous, unclear, or susceptible to multiple interpretations, courts must interpret to determine the true meaning. This includes vague terms, grammatical ambiguities, or words that have no fixed or definite meaning. For example, terms like 'reasonable', 'adequate', or 'fit and proper' require interpretation in context.
2. Silence or Gaps in the Statute – When a statute is silent on a particular matter or fails to address certain situations, courts must interpret to fill the gaps. The statute may not expressly cover all possible scenarios the legislature contemplated. In such cases, interpretation principles are applied to infer legislative intent.
3. Conflicting or Inconsistent Provisions – When different sections of the same statute or different statutes appear to conflict or create inconsistency, interpretation becomes necessary. Courts must reconcile seemingly contradictory provisions to give effect to both, or determine which takes precedence.
4. Technical and Specialized Terms – Statutes often employ technical legal terminology or specialized language. Interpretation is required to determine whether such terms bear their ordinary meaning, legal meaning, or technical meaning in the relevant context.
5. Changed or Unforeseen Circumstances – When a statute drafted for one set of circumstances is applied to situations not anticipated by the legislature, interpretation is needed to determine applicability. For instance, statutes enacted before the digital age may require interpretation when applied to cyber-related issues.
6. Apparent Absurdity or Hardship – When literal interpretation would produce an absurd, unreasonable, or harsh result contrary to the apparent intention of the legislature, courts interpret to avoid such consequences. The mischief rule is often applied in such circumstances—interpretation focuses on the mischief the statute was intended to remedy.
7. Conflict Between Literal Meaning and Legislative Intent – When the literal meaning of words conflicts with what appears to be the legislative purpose or intent, interpretation is required. Courts look beyond the bare words to understand what the legislature intended to achieve.
8. Obsolescence of Language – When language used in a statute has changed meaning over time due to evolution of language, societal changes, or technological developments, interpretation helps determine current applicability.
9. Interaction with Other Laws – When a statute must be read in harmony with other existing laws, constitutional provisions, or international treaties, interpretation is necessary to maintain coherence in the legal system.
10. Ambiguity in Punctuation and Structure – Grammatical ambiguities, punctuation issues, or structural problems in the statute's drafting may require interpretation to discern intended meaning.
These circumstances collectively establish that statutory interpretation is not a discretionary exercise but a necessary judicial function to give effect to legislation in a manner consistent with legislative intent and the rule of law.
📖 Article 32 of the Indian Constitution (right to constitutional remedies)Principles of statutory interpretation as established in leading Supreme Court judgments including the maxim 'ut res magis valeat quam pereat' (construction that gives effect to deed)The Mischief Rule - looking to the mischief the statute was intended to remedyThe Golden Rule - literal interpretation subject to avoiding absurdityThe Literal Rule - plain meaning approach
Q11LLP - Partner liability and admission procedures
2 marks easy
Case: An internal audit revealed that Arjun knowingly prepared a false Statement of Account & Solvency, showing profits though the LLP was in serious financial trouble. The LLP failed to file that statement within the prescribed period and continued business till October 2024, when Mr. Sharma demanded repayment.
Is Bheem liable to Mr. Sharma for LLP debts incurred before his admission, since no notice of admission was filed?
(A) (i) Yes & (ii) Yes
(B) (i) No & (ii) Yes
(C) (i) No & (ii) No
(D) (i) Yes & (ii) No
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Answer: (B) — (i) No & (ii) Yes
Sub-part (i): Bheem's liability for pre-admission debts
Bheem is NOT liable to Mr. Sharma for LLP debts incurred before his admission. Under Section 9 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008, a person admitted as a partner is liable only for obligations of the LLP incurred from the date of his admission onwards. A newly admitted partner's liability is strictly limited to obligations arising after admission. The failure to file a notice of admission is a procedural or regulatory shortcoming but does not convert the legal position regarding liability for pre-existing debts. The fundamental principle of limited liability protects Bheem from exposure to pre-admission liabilities, as these arose when he had no capacity or control over the LLP's affairs.
Sub-part (ii): Arjun's personal liability for the false statement
Arjun IS personally liable for the LLP obligations arising from the false Statement of Account & Solvency. Under Section 32 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008, every designated partner is responsible for the filing and accuracy of prescribed documents, including annual accounts. When Arjun knowingly prepared a false statement:
(a) He has committed fraud, which exposes him to personal liability under both the LLP Act and the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (Sections 415–420 on cheating).
(b) He has breached his fiduciary duty as a partner to act in good faith and in the LLP's interest.
(c) The non-filing of the statement within the prescribed period is a further violation of statutory obligations under the LLP Act.
Under the doctrine of partner liability in fraud cases, a partner who knowingly makes false representations to third parties (like Mr. Sharma) is personally liable, as the principle of limited liability does not shield fraudulent conduct. This is well-established under partnership law principles incorporated into the LLP framework.
📖 Section 9 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 (admission of partners)Section 32 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 (designated partners' responsibilities)Sections 415–420 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (cheating and fraud)
Q12LLP - Partner liability and misuse of funds
2 marks easy
Case: An internal audit revealed that Arjun knowingly prepared a false Statement of Account & Solvency, showing profits though the LLP was in serious financial trouble. The LLP failed to file that statement within the prescribed period and continued business till October 2024, when Mr. Sharma demanded repayment.
Is Nakul personally liable for the ₹3 lakhs withdrawal from LLP funds for personal use?
(A) (i) Yes & (ii) Yes
(B) (i) No & (ii) Yes
(C) (i) No & (ii) No
(D) (i) Yes & (ii) No
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Answer: (B)
(i) Is Nakul personally liable for ₹3 lakhs withdrawal from LLP funds for personal use? NO
Under Section 8 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008, partners in an LLP have limited liability restricted to their contribution to the partnership. A withdrawal by a partner from LLP funds for personal use is an intra-LLP transaction. While Nakul may be liable to the LLP itself for recovery of unauthorized withdrawals, he is NOT personally liable to third-party creditors for this withdrawal. The limited liability shield protects partners from personal exposure beyond their contribution for partnership debts.
(ii) Is Arjun personally liable for vendor debts incurred while she was away? YES
Although Section 8 provides limited liability as a general principle, it contains critical exceptions for designated partners. The Act specifically provides that a designated partner shall be personally liable for: (a) any mis-statement or false statement in documents/returns/statements filed with the Registrar; (b) failure to file required statements within prescribed time; and (c) contraventions of the Act itself. In this case, Arjun knowingly prepared a false Statement of Account & Solvency showing profits when the LLP was insolvent. This constitutes personal wrongdoing by a designated partner. Additionally, the failure to file within the prescribed period creates statutory breach. Under Section 8, such conduct renders the designated partner personally liable. Being inactive and abroad does not exempt her from this statutory liability—it attaches to her actions/omissions in her capacity as designated partner. Creditors who extended credit in reliance on the false statement can pursue Arjun personally.
📖 Section 8 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008Section 11 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 (Designated Partner duties)
Q13Charge registration and enforcement under Companies Act, 201
1 marks easy
Case: Case Scenario - VI
Helix Ltd., a private company incorporated in 2016, was engaged in large-scale construction projects. In April 2024, the company faced a severe cash crunch. The board meeting was held urgently. On 10 April 2024, one of the directors, Mr. Harish, advanced ₹ 25 lakh to the company. He orally stated that the money came from his personal account, but did not provide any written acknowledgement. On 12 April 2024, the company also circulated a memo inviting deposits from the public promising 11% interest. Within 15 days, ₹ 50 lakh was collected from the public. The company kept n…
For failure to register a charge created in favour of Horizon Bank, the effect under Section 77 read with Section 80 is:
(A) The charge is void against liquidator and creditors, and company along with officers are liable for penalty.
(B) The charge remains valid against liquidator and creditors, but company is fined.
(C) The charge becomes valid at law even between company and bank.
(D) The charge can still be enforced if bank produces the mortgage deed in court.
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Answer: (A)
Under Section 77 of the Companies Act, 2013, all charges created on immovable property, plant and machinery, and similar assets must be registered with the Registrar of Companies. Section 80 specifically provides: "Where any charge which should have been registered under Section 77 or 78 is not registered within the period prescribed, the charge, in the event of the company being wound up, shall be void as against the liquidator and any creditor of the company."
In this case, Helix Ltd. created a mortgage on plant and machinery in favour of Horizon Bank but never filed the particulars with the Registrar. Critically, winding-up proceedings have been initiated. Therefore, per Section 80, the charge becomes void against both the liquidator and creditors—meaning Horizon Bank cannot enforce its security interest during liquidation despite holding the mortgage deed.
Additionally, Section 88 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides penalties: the company and every officer in default are liable to fine which may extend to ₹1 lakh for non-registration of charges. The failure was egregious—the charge was created in June 2024 but never registered at all, breaching the statutory timeline.
Option (A) correctly captures both consequences: the charge is void against liquidator and creditors, *and* the company and its officers face penalty liability. Options (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect because Section 80 is absolute in declaring unregistered charges void in winding-up; no exception exists for producing the deed in court or for validity between the company and lender.
📖 Section 77 of the Companies Act, 2013Section 80 of the Companies Act, 2013Section 88 of the Companies Act, 2013
Q14Company Law - Adjourned General Meeting, Quorum, Validity of
2 marks easy
In the adjourned general meeting of Sunset Pvt. Ltd., where only one shareholder attended and resolutions were passed, the validity of such resolutions passed by
(A) Associates of Association only.
(B) Section 103, which provides that members present at adjourned meeting form quorum.
(C) Section 96, which deals with the holding of AGM.
(D) Tribunal's discretion under Section 98.
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Answer: (B)
The validity of resolutions passed at an adjourned general meeting where only one shareholder is present is determined by the quorum rule for adjourned meetings. While option (B) cites Section 103, the technically correct provision is Section 104 of the Companies Act, 2013, which states: "At any adjourned meeting, all members present shall be deemed to constitute the quorum, irrespective of their number."
Under Section 104, even a single member's presence at an adjourned meeting is sufficient to form quorum and conduct valid resolutions. This is an exception to the normal quorum requirements under Section 103 (which requires 2 members for private companies and 5 for public companies). The resolution passed at the adjourned meeting of Sunset Pvt. Ltd. by the sole shareholder present is therefore valid because the statutory exception in Section 104 applies. Option (B) is the closest and best answer among the given choices, as it correctly identifies that the validity stems from the quorum provision for adjourned meetings.
📖 Section 103, Companies Act, 2013 (Quorum)Section 104, Companies Act, 2013 (Quorum at adjourned meeting)
Q15Company Law - Default in Deposits, Section 76A, Criminal and
2 marks easy
The default by Sunset Pvt. Ltd. in revising deposits raised from the public, and the initiation of proceedings under Section 76A, will result in:
(A) Only the company being punishable with fine, directors not liable.
(B) Directors liable only if wilful fraud is proved.
(C) Both company and every officer in default being liable, with imprisonment possible.
(D) Only depositions entitled to civil recovery, no criminal liability arises.
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Answer: (C)
Section 76A of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that when a company defaults in repayment or revision of deposits, both the company and every officer in default are liable to punishment. The company is punishable with fine extending up to five times the deposit amount or one crore rupees (whichever is higher), and officers in default face imprisonment up to three years or fine up to fifty thousand rupees, or both. The section creates both criminal liability (imprisonment) and civil liability (recovery), making option (C) the only comprehensive and correct answer.
📖 Section 76A of the Companies Act, 2013