Worked Solution
✓ VerifiedAnswer: Analysis of eight statements (any seven to be answered)
(a) INCORRECT. Determination of business environment complexity is NOT solely dependent on automation levels. While automation may enhance efficiency, business complexity is multifaceted and depends on factors such as: operational scope, transaction diversity, geographic presence, regulatory environment, market volatility, and product/service range. Highly automated systems can introduce additional complexities in cybersecurity, system controls, and data integrity management. Therefore, increased automation does not necessarily correlate with reduced business complexity.
(b) INCORRECT. SA 200 on Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor explicitly states that auditors provide reasonable assurance, not absolute assurance. Audit risk cannot be reduced to zero. Audit risk comprises inherent risk, control risk, and detection risk. The auditor's scope is to detect material misstatements, but there remains an acceptable risk level that material misstatements may not be identified. Thus, the auditor cannot wholly absorb assurance of freedom from material misstatement.
(c) CORRECT. SA 320 on Materiality to Financial Statements unambiguously requires that determining materiality involves exercise of professional judgment. The determination is not mechanical or purely quantitative but requires consideration of both quantitative benchmarks (revenue, profit, equity, etc.) and qualitative factors relevant to the specific entity and engagement. Each audit requires individualized assessment of materiality thresholds.
(d) INCORRECT. Internal audit functions have a broader scope than merely evaluating internal controls. Per SA 610 and established internal audit standards, internal audit's objectives encompass: risk management assessment, governance evaluation, operational effectiveness, compliance monitoring, IT audit, and process improvement recommendations. Internal controls evaluation is only one component of the internal audit function's wider mandate.
(e) CORRECT. SA 500 on Audit Evidence confirms that when the auditor has not obtained sufficient evidence regarding existence or valuation of accounts payable, testing recorded accounts payable becomes a relevant and necessary audit procedure. Testing recorded amounts helps gather additional evidence to address the deficiency. This is a standard procedure to obtain adequate audit evidence for liability assertions.
(f) INCORRECT. Section 139(8) of the Companies Act, 2013 addresses filling casual vacancies in the auditor's office. While the provision requires companies (other than those with CAG-appointed auditors) to fill vacancies within 30 days, the additional condition "where no cost audit is conducted" is not a statutory qualifier in this section. Cost audit provisions are addressed separately under Section 148, and Section 139(8) does not make the filling of casual auditor vacancies conditional upon absence of cost audit.
(g) CORRECT. SA 500 on Audit Evidence defines sufficiency as the measure of the quantity (amount) of audit evidence required, while relevance addresses the quality (applicability to specific assertions). Sufficiency ensures the auditor has obtained adequate volume of evidence, while relevance ensures the evidence addresses the relevant audit objectives and financial statement assertions being tested.
(h) INCORRECT. SA 701 on Communication of Key Audit Matters establishes that KAM communication is a requirement, not a discretionary matter. For audits of financial statements of listed entities, communicating Key Audit Matters in the audit report is mandatory. KAM communication is not limited to modified audit opinions—it is required regardless of the audit opinion expressed. Additionally, KAM communication applies as a standard practice for listed entities, not as a subjective choice in specific circumstances.
Write it like this
1The skeleton
- Write CORRECT / INCORRECT in bold as your very first word — examiners mark these statements in under 30 seconds per part; if your verdict is buried, they assume you're unsure and dock marks.
- Drop the SA number or Section number immediately after the verdict — e.g., 'INCORRECT. As per SA 200...' — this signals you're working from the standard, not guessing, and is what separates 2/2 from 1/2.
- State the rule in one crisp sentence, then add the reason it flips the statement — don't pad with general theory; the examiner wants to see you pinpoint exactly what the statement got wrong.
- For 'INCORRECT' answers, explicitly state what the correct position IS — just saying 'this is wrong' without correcting it leaves marks on the table; contrast the false claim with the true rule.
- Choose your seven strategically in the first 60 seconds — skip the one you're shakiest on; attempting all eight wastes time and the examiner only marks seven, so a weak eighth answer doesn't help you.
- End each sub-part in 4-5 lines max — at 2 marks per part across seven parts, you have roughly 3 minutes per sub-part; over-writing one kills time for others.
2Examiner-rewarded phrases
3Common trap
Heads up — the most common blunder here is writing three lines of explanation and then slipping in 'hence the statement is incorrect' at the end; examiners scanning fast will miss your verdict entirely. Lock in CORRECT or INCORRECT as word one, every single time, no exceptions.