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Past papers/ Audit & Ethics/ January 2026
Paper 15 Qs
Question Paper · January 2026

CA Inter Audit & Ethics

This page contains all 15 questions from the CA Inter Auditing & Ethics Question Paper for the January 2026 attempt cycle, sourced from VSI Jaipur.

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Q.1 02 marks easy Professional ethics, threats to independence, safeguards ⚡ Try this Q →
Case: Fresh Farm Foods Ltd., a reputed food processing company, engaged Ravi & Maitri Chartered Accountants to provide limited assurance on its Social Responsibility Report for the year ended 31st March 2025. The report primarily covered the company's initiatives on waste reduction, water conservation and community welfare. As part of the engagement, an assurance provider would prepare detailed brief, meet with company's management and conduct interviews with community representatives. While reviewing team behaviour during the engagement, the partner noted concern regarding auditors' and disallowanc…
Which actions should the Ravi & Maitri engagement partner take as per compliance with professional ethical requirements and independent principles?
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(C) (i), (ii) and (v) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
CTTP

Worked Solution

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Answer: (B)

The engagement partner must follow the systematic approach to managing threats to independence as prescribed in the Code of Ethics for Chartered Accountants in India, which is based on the IESBA framework.

(i) Obtain information from the firm to identify and evaluate the threatsCorrect. The first step is to gather complete information about the gifts/hospitality received and the loan arrangement to identify all potential threats (self-interest threat, familiarity threat) and their nature and extent.

(ii) Evaluate whether the action creates threats to independenceCorrect. Once identified, the partner must evaluate whether these actions actually create threats and assess their significance to determine if they impair or can be perceived to impair independence in fact or in appearance.

(iii) Apply safeguards or eliminate threats to an acceptable levelCorrect. If threats are identified, safeguards must be applied (e.g., recusal of affected team members, reduced involvement, mentoring by uninvolved partner, etc.) to bring threats to an acceptable level, or the threats must be eliminated entirely.

(iv) Report the issue directly to the client's CSR Committee for their resolutionIncorrect. Independence and ethics matters are internal firm governance issues, not to be resolved by the client's CSR Committee. The firm must address these internally through its ethics and governance processes. Reporting to the client's committee is inappropriate and does not resolve the auditor's independence concerns.

(v) Consider mitigation of the engagement if threats remain unacceptableCorrect. This is the final step. If after evaluation and application of safeguards, threats remain at an unacceptable level (e.g., loan from client cannot be mitigated), the firm should consider withdrawing from the engagement or modifying its scope to eliminate the threat.

Therefore, actions (i), (ii), (iii), and (v) must be taken.

PLAN

Write it like this

Time target 3 min 36 sec

1The skeleton

- Spot the incorrect option first — in ethics MCQs the wrong choice always involves outsourcing an internal firm governance issue to the client; once you nail (iv) as wrong, the answer falls into place without re-reading all five.
- Name the framework in your first line — write 'Code of Ethics for Chartered Accountants (based on IESBA framework)' before anything else so the examiner ticks the source reference immediately.
- Sequence the three steps explicitly: Identify → Evaluate → Apply safeguards/Eliminate — don't just list correct options randomly; showing the logical chain signals you understand the conceptual flow, not just the answer.
- Justify the wrong option in one crisp line — write 'Option (iv) is incorrect as independence threats are internal firm governance matters and cannot be resolved by the client's CSR Committee'; this is where 1 of your 2 marks lives.

2Examiner-rewarded phrases

“threats to independence in fact or in appearance”“self-interest threat and familiarity threat arising from the loan and gifts/hospitality”“apply safeguards to reduce threats to an acceptable level or eliminate them”

3Common trap

Don't fall for this

Most students mark all five as correct thinking 'transparency with the client is good ethics' — but option (iv) is the trap; reporting independence issues to the client's CSR Committee is never a safeguard, it's a governance breach. Flag it wrong explicitly or you silently lose the mark.

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Q.2 02 marks easy Financial reporting, dividend recognition, accounting standa ⚡ Try this Q →
Case: The company has prepared Financial statements for the year ended 31-03-2025, and in the board meeting held on 15th April 2025, the directors declared a dividend for the financial year 2024-25. During the audit, it was noted that the accountant had recognised the dividend as a liability as at 31st March 2025.
Whether the dividend should be recognised as a liability in the financial statements of Fresh Farm Foods Ltd. as at 31st March 2025?
(A) Yes, it must be recognised in the same year irrespective of the date of declaration
(B) No, the amount should be recognised equally between the two financial years
(C) No, the dividend should not be recognised as a liability, instead the amount proposed dividend should be appropriately disclosed
(D) No, it should neither be recognised nor disclosed
CTTP

Worked Solution

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Answer: (C)

The dividend declared by the board on 15th April 2025 should not be recognised as a liability in the financial statements as at 31st March 2025. Instead, the amount should be appropriately disclosed in the notes.

Reason: Under Ind AS 10 "Events after the Reporting Period", a dividend becomes a liability only when it has been formally declared or approved by the board. Since the dividend was declared on 15th April 2025, which is after the reporting date of 31st March 2025, no obligation existed at the balance sheet date. The dividend is therefore a non-adjusting event.

Treatment: Non-adjusting events should not be recognized in the financial statements but must be disclosed in the notes if material. Accordingly, the proposed/declared dividend should be disclosed in the notes to the financial statements, typically under "Events after the Reporting Period" or in a note on "Dividend and Appropriations", stating the date of declaration and the amount per share or in total.

The accountant's treatment of recognising it as a liability at 31st March 2025 was incorrect because the declaration occurred after year-end.

PLAN

Write it like this

Time target 3 min 36 sec

1The skeleton

- Name Ind AS 10 in your first line — examiners are trained to scan for the standard citation immediately; if it's buried or missing, you lose the anchor mark even if your logic is correct.
- State the answer directly: 'No, dividend should NOT be recognised as liability' — for MCQs with explanation, lead with the verdict so the examiner knows you got option (C) before reading your reasoning.
- Draw the timeline explicitly — 'Reporting date: 31 March 2025 | Declaration date: 15 April 2025' — this one visual line proves you understand WHY it's a non-adjusting event without writing three sentences.
- Use the exact term 'non-adjusting event' — this is the classification marker ICAI looks for; calling it just 'an event after the reporting period' without this label costs you the classification mark.
- Close with the correct treatment: disclose, not recognise — state that it must be disclosed in notes to financial statements if material; this completes the full answer loop and picks up the last half-mark.

2Examiner-rewarded phrases

“the dividend declared after the reporting date is a non-adjusting event under Ind AS 10”“no present obligation existed at the balance sheet date”“the event shall be disclosed in the notes to the financial statements and shall not be recognised”

3Common trap

Don't fall for this

Watch out — most students write 'declared after year-end so not a liability' but forget to say what SHOULD be done, i.e., disclosure in notes. ICAI's marking scheme splits the mark between 'not a liability' AND 'disclose in notes', so stopping at the first half costs you a full mark on a 2-mark MCQ.

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Q.3 02 marks easy Professional ethics, threats to independence ⚡ Try this Q →
Acceptance of significant gift and hospitality from the client and loan taken from the client creates which type of ethical threats?
(A) Advocacy and Advocacy threats respectively
(B) Familiarity threats and Self Interest threats respectively
(C) Intimidation and Advocacy threats respectively
(D) Self Interest and Familiarity threats respectively
CTTP

Worked Solution

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Answer: (B)

Acceptance of significant gifts and hospitality from a client creates a Familiarity Threat because it establishes a sense of closeness and obligation that could compromise professional objectivity and judgment. The professional may feel psychologically aligned with the client's interests.

A loan taken from the client creates a Self-Interest Threat because the professional becomes financially dependent on and indebted to the client. This financial interest directly threatens independence as the professional's judgment could be influenced by the desire to maintain favorable relations with the lender.

PLAN

Write it like this

Time target 3 min 36 sec

1The skeleton

- Write the answer letter first (B) — examiners mark MCQs by scanning the option letter, not reading your explanation first.
- State both threats by name in one line — 'Gifts/hospitality → Familiarity Threat; Loan from client → Self-Interest Threat' — this signals you know the split and won't lose partial credit.
- Give a one-line reason for EACH threat separately — don't club them; examiners award ½ mark per correct identification, so separate reasoning protects both halves.
- Use the word 'independence' in your reason for Self-Interest Threat — ICAI frames all loan-based threats around independence, not just objectivity.

2Examiner-rewarded phrases

“familiarity threat arises when the professional becomes too sympathetic to the client's interests”“self-interest threat arises due to financial or other interest of the member”“threatens the independence and objectivity of the member”

3Common trap

Don't fall for this

Heads up — most students flip these two and say loans create Familiarity Threat because you 'know the client better'. The logic to lock in: gifts make you emotionally close (Familiarity), loans make you financially hooked (Self-Interest). Mix these up and both marks are gone in one shot.

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Q.4 02 marks easy Assurance engagement, three party relationship ⚡ Try this Q →
Which of the following best represents the three party relationship in this assurance engagement?
(A) Ravi & Maitri, Internal audit staff and the CSR department
(B) Ravi & Maitri, management of Fresh Farm Foods Ltd., and the intended users of the report
(C) Ravi & Maitri, the company's board of directors and its external auditors
(D) Ravi & Maitri, employees interviewed during the visit and the intended users of the report
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Q.5 02 marks easy Going concern, SA 705, audit reporting ⚡ Try this Q →
Case: MN & Co., a firm of Chartered Accountants, was engaged to conduct the statutory audit of OP Ltd., a manufacturer of ready-made garments, for the financial year 2024-25. The audit was conducted with different team members assigned to specific areas of responsibilities. Ms. Nisha was responsible for audit documentation and the assembly of the audit file. Mr. Pares was handling the auditor's responsibilities related to the assessment of going concern and basis of accounting is appropriate but a material uncertainty exists. Mr. Sanjay was focusing on the auditor's responsibilities concerning defic…
During the audit of OP Ltd. Mr. Pares concludes that the financial statements do not provide adequate disclosure of a material uncertainty related to going concern. What action should Mr. Pares take in this situation?
(A) The auditor shall express an unmodified opinion.
(B) The auditor shall express a qualified opinion or adverse opinion, as appropriate, in accordance with SA 705.
(C) The auditor shall express a qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion in the auditor's report that may be appropriate, in accordance with SA 705.
(D) Auditor shall disclose the matter in DOM paragraph of the auditor's report.
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Q.6 02 marks easy Internal control deficiencies, audit procedures ⚡ Try this Q →
Case: MN & Co., a firm of Chartered Accountants, was engaged to conduct the statutory audit of OP Ltd., a manufacturer of ready-made garments, for the financial year 2024-25.
Mr. Sanjay considers the following as example of indicators of significant deficiencies in internal control. Which of the following items would actually indicate a significant deficiency?
(A) I, II, III, IV, V
(B) I, II, III, IV
(C) I, III
(D) I, II
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Q.7 02 marks easy Audit documentation, AS 230/SA 230, retention requirements ⚡ Try this Q →
Case: MN & Co., a firm of Chartered Accountants, was engaged to conduct the statutory audit of OP Ltd., a manufacturer of ready-made garments, for the financial year 2024-25.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding audit documentation as per AS 230 or SA 230?
(A) i, ii
(B) i, ii, iii
(C) i, iii
(D) i, iv
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Q.8 02 marks easy Audit of Crypto Currency/Virtual Currency disclosures ⚡ Try this Q →
During the audit of EF Limited for the financial year 2024-25, Mr. Uday, an auditor of EF Limited, was asked to identify the risks of significant qualitative information to be disclosed relating to Crypto Currency or Virtual Currency transactions in the financial statements in accordance with SA No AS-2013. As a senior auditor, Mr. Uday is to identify which of the following points, out of the options given below, would be included in the information to be disclosed relating to Crypto Currency or Virtual Currency: I. Profit or loss on transactions involving Crypto currency or Virtual Currency II. Maximum amount of currency held during the financial year. III. Market value of crypto currency at the end of the financial year. IV. Amount of currency held as at the reporting date. V. Deposits or advances from any person for the purpose of trading or investment in Crypto Currency/Virtual Currency.
(A) I, II, III, V
(B) I, III, IV, V
(C) II, III, IV
(D) II & IV
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Q.9 02 marks easy Audit risks related to inventories held with third parties ⚡ Try this Q →
During the audit of ABC Ltd. CA P found that some of the inventories of the company are lying with third parties. Which of the following are not considered audit risks in this situation? I. There is a risk that company will lose competitive advantage if third party delays production. II. There is a risk that inventory will not be insured properly by the third party. III. There is a risk that sufficient and appropriate evidence would not be available in respect of quantity and condition of inventories lying with the third parties. IV. There is a risk that sufficient and appropriate evidence would not be available for quality control in respect of inventories lying with the third parties.
(A) III
(B) I, II & III
(C) II & IV
(D) I, II & IV
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Q.10 02 marks easy Long Form Audit Report (LFAR) requirements for banks ⚡ Try this Q →
Mr. Saurabh, a Chartered Accountant, has been appointed as the Statutory Auditor of XY Bank, a nationalized bank, for the financial year 2024-25. Before commencing the audit, Mr. Saurabh conducted an orientation session to the audit team to familiarize them with the Long Form Audit Report (LFAR), its applicability, contents, and submission requirements. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of the Long Form Audit Report (LFAR)? I. Besides the audit report, as per the statutory requirements, the terms of appointment of auditors of public sector banks, private sector banks and foreign banks, including their branches, require the auditors to also furnish a long form audit report. II. Various banks require their auditors to deal with in the long form audit report has been specified by RBI. III. The Statutory Central Auditors are required to file the data of the LFAR to the banks on 31st July every year. IV. The format of LFAR mandatorily requires an executive summary to be given, where members must provide the gaps in the key observations from the audit document.
(A) I, III, IV
(B) I, III
(C) II, II
(D) III, IV
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Q.11 01 marks easy Audit sampling and materiality ⚡ Try this Q →
Case: During the audit planning phase, the engagement partner CA T fixed the tolerable misstatement limit at ₹ 1,00,000 for verifying the assignment limit of ₹ 1,00,000. Later, after reassessing the overall materiality, the partner increased the limit to ₹ 2,00,000. A newly joined audit assistant was unsure about how this change will affect the sample size for testing transactions.
In the above case scenario, if the tolerable misstatement is increased to ₹ 2,00,000 how will it affect the audit sample size?
(A) Sample size will increase.
(B) Sample size will decrease.
(C) Sample size will remain unchanged.
(D) No relationship exist between the two.
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Q.12 01 marks easy AS 26 - Intangible Assets ⚡ Try this Q →
Case: While examining 'Intangible Assets' in Skill Edge's books, the auditor reviewed the following expenditures: (i) ₹5 lakhs spent on in-house research to create a unique student performance database intended to enhance marketing effectiveness. (ii) ₹ 5 lakhs paid for software integrated with a computerized learning device—the device cannot function without this software. (iii) ₹ 3 lakhs spent on standalone accounting software used by the finance department.
Which of the following conclusions about Skill Edge's intangible asset expenditure is most appropriate under AS 26?
(A) All items should be recognized as intangible assets.
(B) Only item (i) and (iii) qualify as intangible assets.
(C) Item (i) should be expensed, item (ii) treated as part of fixed assets; item (iii) recognized as intangible asset.
(D) Item (i) should be expensed; items (ii) and (iii) recognized as intangible assets.
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Q.13 01 marks easy Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 ⚡ Try this Q →
Case: Meanwhile, the promoters of Skill Edge set up a new venture, Smart Trade LLP, to trade in refurbished computers and allied devices sourced from Skill Edge's old test centres. Before registration, they consulted CA S to understand the difference between a traditional partnership, an LLP, and a private limited company. He explained that an LLP provides limited liability to its partners, Section as per the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 with the appropriate authority.
Which of the following correctly describes the statutory framework applicable to Smart Trade LLP?
(A) An LLP must have at least two designated partners who must obtain a Director Identification Number (DIN), and it is registered with the Registrar of Firms.
(B) An LLP must have at least two partners, of which one must be designated and it is registered with the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA).
(C) An LLP must have at least two designated partners who must obtain a Designated Partner Identification Number (DPIN), and it is registered with the Registrar of Companies.
(D) An LLP must have a minimum of three partners, and only one is required to hold a Designated Partner Identification Number (DPIN) and it is registered with the Registrar of Companies.
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Q.14 02 marks easy LLP Annual Return Filing - Form 11 - Compliance Timeline ⚡ Try this Q →
If Diyah approaches CA-S in August 2025 for the audit and filings of FY 2024-25, which outcome is correct?
(A) Annual Return filing will be delayed as every LLP would be required to file annual return in FORM 11 with the ROC within 60 days of closure of financial year.
(B) Annual Return filing will be delayed as every LLP would be required to file the annual return in FORM 11 with ROC within 30 days of closure of financial year.
(C) Annual Return filing will not be delayed as every LLP would be required to file the annual return in FORM 11 with ROC within 6 months of closure of financial year.
(D) No delay since filings can be done anytime.
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Q.15 02 marks easy Professional Ethics - Auditor Communication Obligations ⚡ Try this Q →
CA S has failed to respond to incoming auditors. In this regard, choose the correct statement:
(A) It was unethical on the part of outgoing auditors for failing to respond to communication made by incoming auditors. It is a violation of the principle of professional ethics.
(B) It was unethical on the part of outgoing auditors for failing to respond to communication made by incoming auditors. It is a violation of the principle of professional behaviour governing professional ethics.
(C) The outgoing auditor is not required to respond unless the client asks.
(D) It was unethical on the part of outgoing auditors for failing to respond to communication made by incoming auditors. It is a violation of the principle of professional ethics and due care governing professional ethics.
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