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Microlesson · 5-min read

Capital Structure Theories — Background, Assumptions & Common Formulas

## Capital Structure Theories — Foundations

This segment studies the relationship between cost of capital (K₀), capital structure, and the value of the firm (VF).

### The Four Theories

CategoryTheory
Relevance (structure matters)Net Income (NI) Approach
RelevanceTraditional Approach
RelevanceMM Approach 1963 — With Tax
Irrelevance (structure doesn't matter)Net Operating Income (NOI) Approach
IrrelevanceMM Approach 1958 — Without Tax

### General Assumptions (apply to all theories)

  • There is no preference share capital.
  • Only two sources of funds: Debt and Equity.
  • Taxes are not considered (except MM Approach with Tax).
  • Dividend payout ratio is 100% (so DPS = EPS).
  • Business risk is constant over time.
  • The firm has perpetual life.
  • K_d < K_e always (cost of debt is below cost of equity).
  • Total financing stays constant — leverage is changed only by swapping debt for shares (or shares for debt).

### Common Formulas

1. Value of the Firm:

$$VF = V_E + V_D$$

2. Value of Equity:

$$V_E \text{ (per share)} = \frac{EPS}{K_e}; \quad V_E \text{ (total)} = \frac{EFE}{K_e}$$

(EFE = Earnings available For Equity)

3. Value of Debt:

$$V_D = \frac{\text{Total Interest}}{K_d}$$

4. Value of Firm (capitalising EBIT):

$$VF = \frac{EBIT}{K_0}$$

5. Overall Cost of Capital (weighted average):

$$K_0 = K_d W_d + K_e W_e$$

### Doubt Busters

1. Generally K_e > K_d (equity is costlier than debt).

2. Lower the K₀ → higher the VF, and vice versa (inverse relationship).

Worked example

### Example 1

Computing VF from EBIT and K₀. EBIT = ₹3,00,000; overall cost K₀ = 12%. \nVF = 3,00,000 / 0.12 = ₹25,00,000. \nIf the firm restructures and K₀ falls to 10%, VF = 3,00,000/0.10 = ₹30,00,000 — confirming 'lower K₀ → higher VF.'

### Example 2

Splitting VF into equity and debt. Debt of ₹10,00,000 at K_d = 8% → interest = ₹80,000, so V_D = 80,000/0.08 = ₹10,00,000. If total VF = ₹25,00,000, then V_E = 25,00,000 − 10,00,000 = ₹15,00,000. With EFE (earnings for equity) = ₹1,80,000, implied K_e = 1,80,000/15,00,000 = 12%.

⚠️ Common exam mistakes

  • Including preference share capital in theory problems — the standard assumption is NO preference capital; only debt and equity.
  • Forgetting that taxes are ignored in every theory EXCEPT MM with Tax (1963).
  • Capitalising the wrong earnings figure: VF uses EBIT ÷ K₀, while V_E uses earnings FOR EQUITY (EBIT − Interest) ÷ K_e.
  • Reversing the K₀–VF relationship — they move INVERSELY (lower K₀ means a higher firm value).
Reference:
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