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Microlesson · 5-min read

EBIT-EPS Indifference Point

## EBIT–EPS Indifference Point

### Meaning

The indifference point is the level of EBIT at which EPS is the same under two different financing plans. At this EBIT, it does not matter which plan is chosen — both give identical EPS.

### Formula

$$\frac{(EBIT - I_1)(1-t) - PD_1}{E_1} = \frac{(EBIT - I_2)(1-t) - PD_2}{E_2}$$

Where:

  • EBIT = the indifference-point EBIT (the unknown to solve for)
  • E₁, E₂ = number of equity shares under Alternative 1 and 2
  • I₁, I₂ = interest charges under each alternative
  • PD₁, PD₂ = preference dividend under each alternative
  • t = tax rate

> Note: Preference dividend (PD) is not multiplied by (1−t) because it is paid out of post-tax profits.

### Decision Rule — Which Plan to Choose?

SituationChoose
Expected EBIT < Indifference EBITPlan with Lower Fixed Financial Cost
Expected EBIT > Indifference EBITPlan with Higher Fixed Financial Cost
Expected EBIT = Indifference EBITAny plan (EPS identical)

Intuition: Above the indifference point, financial leverage works in your favour (higher fixed-cost plan magnifies EPS). Below it, leverage hurts, so a lower fixed-cost plan is safer.

### When the Indifference Point CANNOT Be Calculated

This happens when the number of equity shares under both alternatives is equal, AND one of the following holds:

1. The fixed financial cost of one alternative is always more than the other → EPS of one alternative is always greater, so the lines never cross.

2. The fixed financial cost of both alternatives is equal → EPS is always the same, so the lines coincide (no single crossing point).

### Graphical View

Plotting EBIT (x-axis) against EPS (y-axis) for each plan gives two straight lines. Their point of intersection is the indifference point.

Worked example

### Example 1

Two-plan indifference point. A firm needs ₹10,00,000. \n- Plan A: All equity — 1,00,000 shares of ₹10 each (E₁ = 1,00,000; I₁ = 0; PD₁ = 0). \n- Plan B: ₹5,00,000 equity (50,000 shares) + ₹5,00,000 debt at 10% (E₂ = 50,000; I₂ = 50,000; PD₂ = 0). \nTax rate t = 40%. \n\nSet EPS equal: \n$$\frac{(EBIT)(0.6)}{1,00,000} = \frac{(EBIT - 50,000)(0.6)}{50,000}$$ \nCross-multiplying: 0.6·EBIT·50,000 = 1,00,000·0.6·(EBIT − 50,000) \n⇒ 0.5·EBIT = EBIT − 50,000 ⇒ 0.5·EBIT = 50,000 ⇒ EBIT = ₹1,00,000. \n\nInterpretation: If expected EBIT > ₹1,00,000, choose Plan B (higher fixed cost/debt); if expected EBIT < ₹1,00,000, choose Plan A (all equity).

### Example 2

Plan with preference shares. Plan with 40,000 equity shares and ₹1,00,000 preference dividend vs. a plan with 60,000 equity shares and no preference dividend, t = 30%. The (1−t) is applied only to (EBIT − I), while PD is deducted in full from the post-tax figure: numerator = (EBIT − I)(1−0.30) − 1,00,000. Equate the two EPS expressions and solve for EBIT.

⚠️ Common exam mistakes

  • Multiplying preference dividend by (1−t). Preference dividend is paid out of post-tax profit and must NOT be tax-adjusted.
  • Applying the wrong decision rule direction — remember: ABOVE the indifference EBIT, pick the HIGHER fixed-cost (more leveraged) plan.
  • Trying to compute an indifference point when shares are equal under both plans and fixed costs differ — no crossing point exists.
  • Forgetting to deduct interest before applying the tax factor — interest is tax-deductible, so it reduces taxable income.
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