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Microlesson · 5-min read

EBIT-EPS-MPS Analysis (Selecting the Financing Mix)

## EBIT–EPS–MPS Analysis

This analysis helps find the best mix (source) of funding for the business. There is no fixed thumb rule — metrics like EPS, MPS and ROE must be worked out case-by-case in each problem.

### Sources of Funds Available

1. Equity share capital

2. Retained earnings

3. Preference share capital

4. Debentures

5. Long-term loans

### Core Objective

The basic objective of financial management is to design a capital structure that provides the highest wealth, i.e., the highest MPS, which in turn depends on EPS.

### Key Principles to Keep in Mind

  • EPS varies with different financing mixes because of the level of debt financing.
  • Leverage affects EPS through fixed financial charges — interest on debt and preference dividends.
  • Favourable leverage (Trading on Equity): If Return on Assets > Cost of Financing, then increasing fixed-charge financing (debt/preference) raises EPS.
  • Unfavourable leverage: If Return on Assets < Cost of Financing, then increasing debt/preference reduces EPS.

### Debt vs. Preference Shares

Debt financing is generally preferred because:

  • Interest rates on debt are usually lower than fixed dividends on preference shares.
  • Interest on debt is tax-deductible, lowering its real (effective) cost compared with preference capital (whose dividend is paid post-tax).

### Why this matters

Analysing capital structure and the leverage impact on EPS and MPS helps select the optimal debt level. EBIT–EPS analysis is therefore a crucial planning and design tool for the finance manager.

### Doubt Busters (Key Relationships)

1. EBIT (Operating Profit) does NOT change with the capital structure — it depends on operations, not financing.

2. MPS = EPS × P/E Ratio

3. EPS = Earnings Available to Equity Shareholders ÷ Number of Equity Shares

Worked example

### Example 1

Comparing two mixes via EPS → MPS. Funds needed ₹20,00,000; expected EBIT ₹4,00,000; tax 30%; P/E ratio = 8. \n- Mix 1 (All Equity): 2,00,000 shares. Earnings to equity = 4,00,000 × 0.70 = ₹2,80,000. EPS = 2,80,000/2,00,000 = ₹1.40. MPS = 1.40 × 8 = ₹11.20. \n- Mix 2 (₹10,00,000 equity = 1,00,000 shares + ₹10,00,000 debt @ 10%): Interest = ₹1,00,000. Earnings to equity = (4,00,000 − 1,00,000) × 0.70 = ₹2,10,000. EPS = 2,10,000/1,00,000 = ₹2.10. MPS = 2.10 × 8 = ₹16.80. \nDecision: Mix 2 gives higher MPS → select the debt-bearing mix (here Return on Assets 20% > cost of debt 10%, so leverage is favourable).

### Example 2

Effect of EBIT not changing with structure. Note that in both mixes above the EBIT was held at ₹4,00,000 — it is independent of how the ₹20,00,000 is financed. Only the interest deduction and share count differ, which is what drives the EPS/MPS difference.

⚠️ Common exam mistakes

  • Believing EBIT changes with the financing mix — EBIT is operating profit and is the SAME across all capital structures in these problems.
  • Choosing the plan with the highest EPS automatically — the goal is the highest MPS (wealth); always convert EPS to MPS using the P/E ratio.
  • Assuming more debt always raises EPS — it only does so when Return on Assets exceeds the cost of financing (favourable leverage); otherwise debt reduces EPS.
  • Treating preference dividend like interest for tax — preference dividend is NOT tax-deductible, which is a key reason debt is usually cheaper.
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