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Microlesson · 5-min read

Cost of Preference Share Capital (Kp) — Irredeemable & Redeemable

## Cost of Preference Share Capital (Kp)

Preference shareholders receive dividend at a specified rate on face value.

Key tax point: Preference dividend is not an expense — it is an appropriation of after-tax profit. So, unlike debenture interest, it does not reduce the company's tax liability. (Hence there is no (1 − t) factor in Kp.)

Like debentures, preference capital is either irredeemable or redeemable.

### A. Cost of Irredeemable Preference Shares

These are never redeemed by the issuer. Dividend is a perpetuity:

$$K_p = \frac{PD}{P_0}$$

  • PD = Annual preference dividend
  • P₀ = Net proceeds from issue

### B. Cost of Redeemable Preference Shares

Two approaches — use either when the question is silent.

Relevant cash flows:

YearCash flow
0Net proceeds (new issue) / Current market price (existing) — NP or P₀
1 to nPreference Dividend (PD)
nRedemption Value (RV)

(i) YTM Method (PV / IRR Method) — the accurate method.

1. Identify the cash flows.

2. Compute NPVs at two guessed discount rates.

3. Interpolate to find the IRR = Kp.

(ii) Approximation Method (Shortcut/Formula) — gives only an approximate value.

$$K_p = \frac{PD + \dfrac{(RV - NP)}{n}}{\dfrac{(RV + NP)}{2}}$$

where PD = annual preference dividend, RV = redemption value, NP = net proceeds, n = remaining life.

⚠️ Common exam mistakes

  • Applying a (1 − t) tax shield to Kp — preference dividend is paid out of after-tax profit and gives no tax benefit.
  • Confusing net proceeds (NP) with face value — NP = Issue Price less floatation cost.
  • Forgetting that the Approximation Method is only approximate; YTM gives the accurate Kp.
  • Not knowing the assumption hierarchy when figures are missing (Issue Price → Current Market Price → Face Value; floatation cost = 0 if not given).
Reference:
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