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Microlesson · 5-min read

Other Issues in Cost of Debt (Kd) — Amortization, Convertible & Zero Coupon Bonds, Short-term Debt, Bank Loan

## Other Issues in Cost of Debt (Kd)

Beyond the standard redeemable/irredeemable debenture computation, several special situations affect how Kd is calculated. The recurring trap is using a year-end face-value redemption assumption when the actual cash-flow pattern is different.

### 1. Amortization of Debenture / Bond

A bond may be amortized every year — i.e. the principal is repaid in instalments over the life rather than as a single lump sum at maturity.

  • As principal is repaid each year, the outstanding principal falls, so the interest (charged on the outstanding balance) also falls.
  • Result: the bond's cash flows are uneven year to year.
  • Value the bond by discounting each year's actual cash flow:

$$V_B = \frac{CF_1}{(1+k_d)^1} + \frac{CF_2}{(1+k_d)^2} + \frac{CF_3}{(1+k_d)^3} + \dots + \frac{CF_n}{(1+k_d)^n} = \sum_{t=1}^{n}\frac{CF_t}{(1+k_d)^t}$$

### 2. Cost of Convertible Debentures

Holders may, at redemption, choose either cash redemption or a specified number of the company's equity shares.

  • The computation is otherwise the same as a redeemable debenture.
  • Assume every holder picks the more valuable option. Therefore:

> Redemption Value = HIGHER of (a) Cash value of debenture, or (b) Value of the equity shares offered on conversion.

Use that higher figure as RV in the Kd formula.

### 3. Zero Coupon Bond (Deep Discount Bond)

  • Issued at a deep discount and redeemed at par.
  • No coupon/interest is paid during the bond's life.
  • Kd is found using the YTM approach — the discount rate that equates issue price to the redeemed value:

$$B_0 = \frac{RV}{(1+k_d)^n}$$

### 4. Treatment of Short-Term Debt

  • Short-term debt (e.g. creditors) is a current liability, not part of capital employed.
  • Therefore exclude short-term debt when computing WACC (Ko).

### 5. Cost of Long-Term Bank Loan

  • Treated like a normal Kd computation but simpler — there is no premium/discount concept.

$$k_d = \text{Interest Rate} \times (1 - t)$$

⚠️ Common exam mistakes

  • Treating an amortized bond with a single year-end redemption cash flow instead of building uneven year-wise cash flows on the declining principal.
  • Taking the cash redemption value for a convertible debenture when the equity-share conversion value is higher — RV must be the HIGHER of the two.
  • Including coupon/interest cash flows for a zero coupon bond, which pays none during its life.
  • Including short-term debt / creditors in capital employed when computing WACC.
  • Applying premium/discount adjustments to a long-term bank loan, where no such concept exists.
Reference:
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