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Microlesson · 5-min read

Marginal Cost of Capital and Breaking Points

## Marginal Cost of Capital (MACC) and Breaking Points

As a firm raises progressively more capital, cheaper internal sources (retained earnings) get exhausted. The firm must then issue new equity at flotation cost. The cost of each additional rupee — the marginal cost of capital — rises at these breaking points.

### Breaking Point Formula

BP = Maximum amount of cheaper source / Its proportion in target capital structure

For retained earnings:

BP_RE = Available retained earnings / Equity weight

Below BP: use cost of retained earnings (Kr)

Above BP: use cost of new equity (Ke_new, which includes flotation cost)

### Debt Breaking Point

If debt has tiered costs (e.g., cheaper up to ₹X, costlier beyond):

BP_debt = Maximum cheap debt / Debt weight

### Marginal WACC Schedule

1. List all sources and their costs at different funding levels

2. Compute breaking points for each source that changes cost

3. WACC₁ applies up to first BP; WACC₂ above first BP; and so on

### Standard Exam Structure

(A) Compute after-tax costs of new debt, new preference, and equity (from retained earnings)

(B) MACC when no new equity is needed (using Kr)

(C) Breaking point = RE available / equity proportion

(D) MACC beyond breaking point (using Ke_new at flotation-adjusted NP)

Worked example

### Example 1

Q54 — ABC Ltd: full marginal cost schedule (Study Material)

Capital structure: 14% Deb ₹30,000 (15%); 11% Pref ₹10,000 (5%); Equity ₹1,60,000 (80%). Tax = 50%.

EPS trend: grows from ₹1.00 (2001) to ₹2.36 (2010) — 9 years

g: (2.36/1.00)^(1/9) – 1 ≈ 10% (check: 1.00 × 1.10⁹ ≈ 2.358 ✓)

(A) Component costs:

(i) New 16% debentures, market ₹96 → NP = ₹96 (use market as net proceeds), RV = ₹100 (par)

Kd = [16×0.50 + (100–96)/n] / [(100+96)/2] ≈ 8/96 = 8.33% (perpetual approx for irredeemable; if redeemable use n)

Actually, for new debentures at NP = ₹96, coupon 16%, redeemable at par:

Approx Kd ≈ [8 + small amortisation] / 98 ≈ 8.42%

(ii) New 11% pref at ₹9.20, D = ₹1.10:

Kp = 1.10 / 9.20 = 11.96%

(iii) Equity from retained earnings: D₁ = 50% × ₹2.36 = ₹1.18; P₀ = ₹23.60

Kr = 1.18/23.60 + 0.10 = 5% + 10% = 15%

(B) MACC (no new shares):

= 0.15×8.42 + 0.05×11.96 + 0.80×15

= 1.26 + 0.60 + 12.00 = 13.86%

(C) Breaking point:

Retained earnings available = 50% × 2010 EPS × shares = 50% × 2.36 × 10,000 = ₹11,800

BP = 11,800 / 0.80 = ₹14,750

(D) MACC beyond BP (new equity at ₹20 net):

Ke_new = 1.18/20 + 0.10 = 5.9% + 10% = 15.9%

New MACC = 0.15×8.42 + 0.05×11.96 + 0.80×15.9

= 1.26 + 0.60 + 12.72 = 14.58%

### Example 2

Q44 — ABC Ltd: additional debt with tiered cost (PYQ)

Additional finance needed = ₹20L; D:E = 25:75; RE available = ₹4L; Tax = 30%; Personal tax = 20%

Equity needed = 75% × 20 = ₹15L → RE covers ₹4L → New equity = ₹11L

Debt needed = 25% × 20 = ₹5L

(i) Average after-tax cost of debt:

First ₹2L @ 10%: Kd = 10×0.70 = 7%

Next ₹3L @ 13%: Kd = 13×0.70 = 9.10%

Weighted avg = (2×7 + 3×9.10)/5 = (14+27.3)/5 = 8.26%

(ii) Ke = (EPS×payout)/P₀ + g = (12×0.50)/60 + 0.10 = 10% + 10% = 20%

Kr = 20% × (1–0.20) = 16% (personal tax adjustment)

(iii) Overall WACC on ₹20L additional:

= (4/20)×16 + (11/20)×20 + (5/20)×8.26

= 3.20 + 11.00 + 2.065 = 16.265%

⚠️ Common exam mistakes

  • Dividing available retained earnings by total new capital (not by the equity proportion) — the BP formula divides by the equity weight, not 1.
  • Computing the breaking point in rupees and stopping there instead of calculating the new MACC beyond the BP.
  • Forgetting that Kr < Ke_new — below the BP, retained earnings are used (cheaper); above the BP, new equity is issued (more expensive due to flotation).
  • For tiered debt, not computing a weighted average cost across the tiers — each tranche has a different after-tax cost.
Reference:
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