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Microlesson · 5-min read

Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)

## Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)

WACC is the blended cost of all capital sources, weighted by their proportions in the capital structure. It represents the minimum return a firm must earn on its investments to satisfy all capital providers.

### Formula

```

WACC = Σ (Wi × Ki)

```

Where `Wi` = proportion of source i and `Ki` = cost of source i

### Weights: Book Value vs Market Value

Book Value (BV) weights:

  • Based on balance sheet figures
  • Easier to compute
  • Does not reflect current economic reality
  • Can be misleading if market prices diverge significantly

Market Value (MV) weights:

  • Based on current market prices of equity, preference shares, and debentures
  • More accurate — reflects current cost of raising capital
  • Preferred for decision-making and project evaluation
  • Recommended by most theorists

### Treatment of retained earnings in weights

  • In book value weights: retained earnings are shown separately
  • In market value weights: retained earnings have no separate market value — they are already captured in the equity share price. Assign zero weight to retained earnings in MV weights.

### Steps to compute WACC

1. Find market value (or book value) of each source

2. Compute individual costs (Kd after tax, Kp, Ke, Kr)

3. Calculate weights = each source's value / total capital

4. WACC = Σ (Weight × Cost)

Worked example

### Example 1

Q37 – PQR Ltd. WACC using Market Value Weights

Capital structure:

  • Equity: 2,00,000 shares × ₹30 MPS = ₹60,00,000
  • Reserves: included in equity market value
  • 12% Pref: ₹10,00,000 (at book = assumed market)
  • 9% Debentures: ₹30,00,000 (at book = assumed market)

Total market value = ₹1,00,00,000

Individual costs:

  • Ke = D1/P0 + g = 3/30 + 0.07 = 10% + 7% = 17%
  • Kp = 12% (no tax on pref dividends)
  • Kd = 9% × (1−0.40) = 5.4%
SourceMV (₹)WeightCostWeighted Cost
Equity+Reserves60,00,0000.6017%10.20%
Pref shares10,00,0000.1012%1.20%
Debentures30,00,0000.305.4%1.62%
Total1,00,00,0001.0013.02%

### Example 2

Q38 – WACC before and after new borrowing

Existing structure:

  • Equity: 6,00,000 shares × ₹600 = ₹36,00,00,000 = ₹36 cr
  • 12% Debentures: ₹1.80 cr (at book, assumed par)
  • Reserves: included in equity market value

Ke = D1/P0 + g

D0 = 24% × 100 = ₹24 per share; D1 = 24 × 1.05 = ₹25.20

Ke = 25.20/600 + 0.05 = 4.2% + 5% = 9.2%

Kd = 12% × (1−0.30) = 8.4%

Total MV = 36 + 1.80 = ₹37.80 cr

WACC = (36/37.80 × 9.2%) + (1.80/37.80 × 8.4%)

= 8.76% + 0.40% = 9.16%

After raising ₹3 cr @ 18% loan (new MPS = ₹500):

New equity MV = 6,00,000 × 500 = ₹30 cr

New Ke = 25.20/500 + 0.05 = 5.04% + 5% = 10.04%

Kd_new = 18% × 0.70 = 12.6%

Total MV = 30 + 1.80 + 3 = ₹34.80 cr

New WACC = (30/34.80 × 10.04%) + (1.80/34.80 × 8.4%) + (3/34.80 × 12.6%)

= 8.65% + 0.43% + 1.09% = 10.17%

⚠️ Common exam mistakes

  • Giving retained earnings a separate market value weight — in MV-based WACC, retained earnings are embedded in the equity share price.
  • Using coupon rate as cost of debt instead of the after-tax yield.
  • Using book value weights when market value weights are required, or vice versa.
  • Forgetting to include all sources of capital (missed debentures or preferred shares in the total).
  • Computing Ke using the next dividend (D1) correctly but then using P0 as cum-dividend price rather than ex-dividend.
Reference:
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